Who it’s for. Students working through Mechanics of Materials, and the teachers, tutors and parents printing handouts for them. Print it, copy it, staple it: it’s free for classroom use, whole or by the page.
How to use it. Each module teaches its formulas in order (equation, picture, and what every symbol means), then closes with a practice set. Work the problems with a pencil; the answer key waits at the back so honest work gets an honest check. The two-page formula sheet up front is the exam-day companion, and every formula carries its number (Mechanics of Materials-1 onward) so your written work can cite exactly which one you used.
Do it live. Every problem in here has a living version in the Exam Room at formula.expert/exams/university-mechanics-of-materials: new numbers every attempt, hints that pop down when you want them, stars and streaks when you don’t need them. When a printed problem stumps you, the matching lesson will coach you through it, step by step, free and with no sign-up. Other courses’ study guides live at formula.expert/study-guides.
Reading the lab report · Stress under load · Strain and stiffness · The stretch of a bar · Shear and Poisson · The elastic family · Margin and heat · The Tension Test
Force alone tells you nothing about whether a part will survive: a 50 kN pull is nothing to a bridge chord and fatal to a coat hanger. What matters is the force spread over the material actually resisting it, and that intensity is stress. Claude-Louis Navier formalised it in his 1826 Leçons, the book that turned the craft of building into the discipline of strength of materials. Work an example: a 50 kN load on a rod of 500 mm² cross-section gives σ = 50 000 N ÷ 0.0005 m² = 100 000 000 Pa = 100 MPa, comfortably inside structural steel's 250 MPa yield.
The classic trap is using the gross area when a hole has been drilled through it. A 1/2-inch bolt hole through a 3-inch by 1/4-inch bar removes a sixth of the section, and the stress at that net section is a sixth higher: this is why steel design codes make you check gross yielding and net-section rupture separately. Threaded rod is the same story: a 1/2-13 rod has 0.196 in² of shank but only 0.1419 in² of tensile stress area, and the threads are where it breaks.
Worked example 1.1. Given P = 50 kN, A = 500 mm²; find σ (normal stress). 50 kN on 500 mm² → 100 MPa.
Strain is stretch per unit of original length, so it carries no units at all: a 2 mm elongation over a 4 m member is ε = 0.002 ÷ 4 = 0.0005, or 500 microstrain. Engineers quote microstrain (µε, parts per million) because real elastic strains are tiny: steel yields at roughly 1200 µε, barely a millimetre per metre. Measuring numbers that small was impossible until 1938, when Edward Simmons at Caltech and Arthur Ruge at MIT independently glued fine wire to a specimen and watched its electrical resistance change: the bonded foil strain gauge, still the backbone of every load cell and truck scale today.
The trap is the denominator: strain is always referred to the original length, not the stretched one. Divide by the final length and you have computed "true strain", which differs from engineering strain by less than a tenth of a percent in the elastic range but diverges wildly once a tensile specimen starts necking. Keep both lengths in the same unit and the ratio takes care of itself.
Worked example 1.2. Given δ = 2 mm, L = 4 m; find ε (normal strain). 2 mm over 4 m → 500 microstrain.
This is Hooke's law promoted from a particular spring to a whole material: stress and strain rise together in fixed proportion, and the constant of proportionality is the stiffness of the substance itself. Thomas Young presented it in his 1807 lecture series, though Leonhard Euler had the idea in 1727 and Giordano Riccati measured it in 1782, and Young's own prose was so impenetrable that his publisher's reviewers complained they could not follow it. Steel comes in at E = 200 GPa (29 000 ksi), aluminium at 69 GPa (10 000 ksi), concrete near 30 GPa, wood along the grain around 11 GPa. Apply 200 MPa to steel and you get ε = 200 ÷ 200 000 = 0.001, one millimetre per metre.
The trap that surprises everyone new to the trade: all structural steels have the same E. A992 grade-50 steel is no stiffer than plain A36: it is only stronger. Upgrading grade buys you more capacity before yield, never less deflection, so a bouncy floor is never fixed by a better alloy, only by a deeper section. And E only describes the straight part of the curve; past the proportional limit the material yields and this formula quietly stops being true.
Worked example 1.3. Given σ = 200 MPa, ε = 0.001 m/m; find E (young's modulus). 200 MPa at 0.001 strain → E = 200 GPa.
Chain σ = P/A, ε = δ/L and E = σ/ε together and everything collapses into one line: δ = PL/AE. The product AE is the axial stiffness of the member, and dividing it by L gives the spring constant of a rod: a structural member really is just a very stiff spring. A 3 m steel hanger rod of 1000 mm² carrying 100 kN stretches δ = (100 000 × 3) ÷ (0.001 × 200 × 10⁹) = 0.0015 m, one and a half millimetres.
Two practical consequences. First, length is linear, so the elevator ropes at the bottom of a 400 m shaft stretch dramatically more than the same ropes near the top: the reason high-rise lifts need compensating ropes and re-levelling. Second, in a run of pipe supported by rods of different lengths, the long rods stretch more under the same load and quietly shed their share onto the short ones; in a redundant hanger array the load distributes by stiffness, not by fairness. If several segments are in series with different A, E or P, compute δ for each and add them.
Worked example 1.4. Given P = 100 kN, L = 3 m, A = 1000 mm², E = 200 GPa; find δ (elongation). 100 kN on 3 m x 1000 mm² steel → 1.5 mm.
Where normal stress pulls a section apart, shear stress slides it sideways: the scissors action that cuts a bolt or tears a weld. The formula assumes the stress is spread evenly over the sheared area, which is a fiction (in a round bar under transverse shear the true peak is about a third higher at the centre), but it is the fiction every bolt code is calibrated to. A bolt with 200 mm² of shank carrying 20 kN across a splice sees τ = 20 000 ÷ 0.0002 = 100 MPa.
The detail that gets missed is counting shear planes. A bolt in a lap joint has one plane; the same bolt in a double-shear butt splice has two, and doubling the area halves the stress, so use A=n×Abolt. The consequences of getting connections wrong are not academic: the Hyatt Regency walkway collapse in Kansas City in 1981 killed 114 people because a shop-drawing change doubled the load on a single rod-and-washer connection, and it tore straight through the box beam. The joint, not the beam, is almost always the weakest link.
Worked example 1.5. Given V = 20 kN, A = 200 mm²; find τ (shear stress). 20 kN across 200 mm² → 100 MPa.
Shear strain γ is not a stretch but a change of angle: push the top of a block sideways by Δx while its height stays h, and γ = Δx/h, the small angle in radians by which the originally square corner has been racked out of true. The shear modulus is the stress needed per unit of that racking. Charles-Augustin de Coulomb measured it first, in the 1784 torsion-balance experiments that also gave him the law of electrostatics: he twisted fine wires and timed their oscillations. Steel runs G ≈ 77 GPa (11 600 ksi), aluminium ≈ 26 GPa. A shear stress of 60 MPa producing γ = 0.0008 rad implies G = 60 ÷ 0.0008 = 75 000 MPa = 75 GPa.
The trap is treating G as an independent property to look up separately: for an isotropic material it is locked to E and Poisson's ratio by E = 2G(1 + ν), so with ν ≈ 0.3 you always get G ≈ 0.385 E. Enter γ as a plain ratio (radians), not degrees: a shear strain of 0.001 is a milliradian, about 0.057°, and mixing the two inflates G by a factor of 57.
Worked example 1.6. Given τ = 60 MPa, γ = 0.0008 m/m; find G (shear modulus). 60 MPa at 800 microstrain shear → G = 75 GPa.
Stretch a bar and it gets thinner; squeeze it and it bulges. Poisson's ratio is the bookkeeping for that sideways response: this calculator uses magnitudes, so a positive ν means the usual behaviour (the formal definition carries a minus sign, ν = −ε_lat/ε_ax). Pull steel to an axial strain of 0.0003 and each transverse dimension shrinks by 0.00009, giving ν = 0.30. Siméon Denis Poisson derived a universal value of exactly 1/4 in 1829 from a molecular model of matter; the model was wrong and the measurements soon proved it, but the ratio kept his name.
Thermodynamics caps isotropic materials at ν = 0.5, the incompressible limit that rubber nearly reaches, which is why a rubber block confined in a steel cavity behaves like a hydraulic fluid and will burst its container rather than squash. At the other end, cork sits near zero, which is exactly why a cork pushes into a bottle neck without fattening while a rubber bung fights you. Engineered auxetic foams even manage negative values, getting fatter when stretched. The practical trap: ν only applies in the elastic range; once a metal yields, plastic flow conserves volume and the effective ratio jumps to 0.5.
Worked example 1.7. Given εlat = 0.00009 m/m, εax = 0.0003 m/m; find ν (poisson's ratio). lateral 90 ue / axial 300 ue → nu = 0.30.
An isotropic material (one with no grain direction, which covers most metals, glass and concrete well enough) has only two independent elastic constants. Pick any two of E, G, ν and K, and the rest follow. This particular identity falls out of resolving a pure shear into equal tension and compression on planes at 45°, and it is the fastest sanity check in the business: steel's E = 200 GPa with ν = 0.30 demands G = 200 ÷ (2 × 1.3) = 76.9 GPa, which is what handbooks list (77 GPa).
Whether elasticity needed two constants or one was a genuine nineteenth-century brawl. Navier, Poisson and Cauchy's early "rari-constant" molecular theory insisted a single constant sufficed and forced ν = 1/4 for everything; Green and Stokes argued for two on energy grounds. Careful measurement settled it: real materials refuse to sit at ν = 0.25. The trap: this relation applies only to isotropic materials. Wood, fibre composites and rolled sheet with strong texture have direction-dependent moduli, and plugging one axis's E into this formula will give you a shear modulus that is off by a factor of ten.
Worked example 1.8. Given E = 200 GPa, ν = 0.30; find G (shear modulus). E = 200 GPa, nu = 0.30 → G = 76.92 GPa.
A factor of safety is the ratio between the stress that breaks the material and the stress you allow it to see in service. Structural steel with a 400 MPa ultimate strength worked at 160 MPa carries FS = 400 ÷ 160 = 2.5. American steel practice long used FS = 1.67 on yield for tension members, which is where the familiar 0.6Fy allowable comes from: 58 ksi ÷ 1.67 ≈ 34.7 ksi for A36. Elevator suspension ropes are held to 10 or 12, pressure-vessel plate to about 3.5, aircraft structure to a lean 1.5, because on an aircraft, every extra kilogram of margin is a kilogram not carried.
Old engineers called it the "factor of ignorance", and the name is honest: it covers material scatter, corrosion, fabrication tolerance, overload and the sheer possibility that the analysis missed a load path. Two traps. First, always state what the numerator is: a factor of 2 on ultimate is a far thinner margin than a factor of 2 on yield, since steel's ultimate is well above its yield. Second, a factor of safety is not a licence to overload: it is consumed by the things you did not model, and a rope rated 5:1 that is jerked, shock-loaded and worn has already spent most of it.
Worked example 1.9. Given σu = 400 MPa, σallow = 160 MPa; find FS (factor of safety). 400 MPa ultimate at 160 MPa allowable → FS 2.5.
Figure 1.10: thermal stress in a restrained member.
A free member heated by ΔT would stretch by strain αΔT and feel nothing. Clamp both ends and it cannot move, so the material must carry exactly the stress needed to undo that strain: σ = EαΔT. Notice what is missing: length and area do not appear. A 3 m pipe spool and a 300 m pipeline reach the same thermal stress for the same temperature swing, which is the single most counter-intuitive result in the subject. Steel with E = 200 GPa and α = 12 × 10⁻⁶/°C heated 50 °C develops 200 × 10⁹ × 12 × 10⁻⁶ × 50 = 120 MPa, roughly half of A36's yield, from a temperature change any black pipe sees between a winter install and a summer steam-up.
Railways learned this the hard way: continuously welded rail is laid pre-tensioned at a "stress-free temperature" precisely so that summer heat does not build enough compression to throw the track sideways into a sun kink. The same physics puts expansion loops, bellows and slide guides into every hot-water and steam distribution system, and cracks the anchor lugs of any pipe rigidly clamped at both ends. The trap in the arithmetic is unit pairing: α in 1/°F must go with ΔT in Fahrenheit degrees, α in 1/K with kelvin or Celsius degrees. The two scales differ by 9/5 and mixing them is a 44% error.
Worked example 1.10. Given E = 200 GPa, α = 12e-6 1/K, ΔT = 50 C°; find σ (thermal stress). steel restrained through 50 C° → 120 MPa.
Module 1 practice
1.Stress under load: A tie in a bridge deck must carry 80 kN, and the code caps the working stress in that steel at 100 MPa. Determine the cross-sectional area the tie requires, in square millimetres.
2.Stress under load: A hanger rod of 300 mm² section is being worked at 150 MPa. Determine the axial load the rod is carrying, in kilonewtons.
3.Strain and stiffness: A 4 m steel hanger rod is loaded, and a scribed gauge shows it standing 6 mm longer than it did unloaded. Determine the normal strain in the member, in microstrain.
4.Strain and stiffness: An incoming-materials check pulls a coupon to 180 MPa. The strain gauge on it reports 900 µε while the load is held. Determine the alloy’s Young’s modulus, in gigapascals.
5.The stretch of a bar: A 2 m steel tie of 400 mm² section (E = 200 GPa) is measured 1.5 mm longer under service load than it was slack. Determine the axial load in the tie, in kilonewtons.
6.The stretch of a bar: A 2 m tie of steel (E = 200 GPa) has to carry 100 kN, and the detail limits its stretch to 1 mm. Determine the cross-sectional area the tie requires, in square millimetres.
7.Shear and Poisson: A clevis pin of 150 mm² cross-section fastens a bracket to a single lug, so one section of the pin carries the whole transverse load of 27 kN. Determine the average shear stress in the pin, in megapascals.
8.Shear and Poisson: A 250 mm² pin fastens a link between two plates in double shear: the 25 kN load crosses two of the pin's sections, not one. Determine the average shear stress in the pin, in megapascals.
9.The elastic family: Both elastic moduli of an isotropic alloy are on file — E = 120 GPa and G = 48 GPa — but the Poisson’s ratio entry has been lost. Determine Poisson’s ratio for the alloy.
10.The elastic family: A datasheet for an isotropic alloy gives Young’s modulus as 150 GPa and Poisson’s ratio as 0.25, but the shear modulus line has been left blank. Determine the alloy’s shear modulus, in gigapascals.
11.Margin and heat: A code requires a factor of safety of 3 on a component made from a steel with a yield strength of 330 MPa. Determine the allowable working stress, in megapascals.
12.Margin and heat: A stainless steel pipe run is anchored rigidly at both ends, so it cannot grow by even a millimetre. In service its wall sits 60 C° above the temperature it was installed at. For this steel E = 200 GPa and α = 17 × 10⁻⁶ per °C. Determine the stress the restraint builds in the pipe wall, in megapascals.
13.The Tension Test: Last specimen of the day. A coupon of 300 mm² section is held at 45 kN in the test frame; over a 200 mm gauge length the extensometer reads 0.15 mm of stretch, and the mill certificate puts the alloy's yield strength at 300 MPa. The drawing this alloy is destined for calls for a factor of safety of at least 2.5. Work each line — every answer feeds the next. Read the specimen end to end, and say whether the alloy meets the drawing.
14.The Tension Test: Bonus mark, worked backwards. A second bar of a 70 GPa alloy, 400 mm² in section, is gauged at 1000 µε while the frame holds it. Nobody wrote down the load. Determine the load the frame must be applying, in kilonewtons.
Module 2
Torsion and Shafts
The polar moment · Shear in the shaft · The angle of twist · Torque from power · Sizing the shaft · Keys under shear · The Drive Line
Torsion is bending's rotational twin, and J plays the role I plays in bending: it measures how far the section's area lies from the shaft's centre rather than from a line through it. By the perpendicular-axis theorem J=Ix+Iy, and for a circle those two are equal, so J = 2I = πd⁴/32 exactly. A 50 mm shaft has J = π × 0.05⁴ ÷ 32 = 6.136 × 10⁻⁷ m⁴.
The same fourth-power leverage applies: go from a 50 mm to a 60 mm shaft and torsional stiffness rises by (60/50)⁴ = 2.07, more than double for a 20% size step. Hollow shafts win even harder here than in bending, since torsional shear is zero at the centre and maximum at the surface: the core is dead weight, which is why propeller shafts and torque tubes are bored out. Two warnings: J is returned in m⁴ as a plain number (1 in⁴ = 4.162314 × 10⁻⁷ m⁴), and this simple formula holds only for circular sections. Saint-Venant showed in 1855 that non-circular bars warp out of plane when twisted, and a square bar's torsional constant is about 0.844 (a/2)⁴ × 2.25, not its polar moment at all.
Worked example 2.1. Given d = 50 mm; find J (polar moment of inertia). 50 mm shaft → J = 6.1359e-7 m⁴.
Twist a round shaft and every cross-section rotates rigidly relative to its neighbour, so the shear strain, and therefore the shear stress, grows linearly from zero at the centre to a maximum at the outer surface. That is the whole content of τ = Tr/J. Coulomb established the linear torque-twist behaviour experimentally in 1784 while building his torsion balance, and the modern form followed from Navier's generation. A 1 kN·m torque on a 50 mm shaft (J = 6.136 × 10⁻⁷ m⁴, r = 0.025 m) produces τ = 1000 × 0.025 ÷ 6.136 × 10⁻⁷ = 40.7 MPa at the surface.
Because only the surface matters, hollow shafts are the efficient answer, and any surface defect is disproportionately dangerous: a machining groove, a keyway or a sharp fillet at a shoulder is exactly where the stress is already highest, which is why fatigue failures of drive shafts nearly always start at a step or a keyway corner. Enter J in m⁴ and T in newton-metres; also remember that a shaft carrying torque plus bending must be checked on the combined stress, not each separately, and that ductile shafts fail on a plane perpendicular to the axis while brittle ones (cast iron, chalk) break on a 45° helix, following the principal tension.
Worked example 2.2. Given T = 1 kN·m, r = 25 mm, J = 6.1359232e-7 m⁴; find τ (torsional shear stress). 1 kN·m on a 50 mm shaft → 40.74 MPa at the surface.
This is the torsional counterpart of δ = PL/AE: the product JG is the torsional rigidity, and dividing it by L gives the shaft's torsional spring rate. A 2 m length of 50 mm steel shaft (J = 6.136 × 10⁻⁷ m⁴, G = 80 GPa) under 1 kN·m twists φ = 1000 × 2 ÷ (6.136 × 10⁻⁷ × 80 × 10⁹) = 0.0407 rad = 2.33°. The formula returns radians internally; this calculator displays degrees, so watch which one you are reading.
Long shafts are usually governed by twist rather than by stress. The old machine-design rule of thumb is to hold a power transmission shaft to about one degree of twist per twenty diameters of length, because more than that and the driven end lags the driver enough to upset timing, chatter a cutting tool, or set up torsional vibration. Torsional resonance is a real killer in reciprocating engine and compressor drivelines: the crankshaft, flywheel and driven mass form a torsional oscillator whose stiffness is exactly JG/L, and running near its natural frequency has snapped many crankshafts. Enter J in m⁴ as a plain number, and note this holds for circular sections only.
Worked example 2.3. Given T = 1 kN·m, L = 2 m, J = 6.1359232e-7 m⁴, G = 80 GPa; find φ (angle of twist). 1 kN·m over 2 m of 50 mm steel shaft → 2.334 deg.
Figure 2.4: shaft torque from power and angular speed.
Power is the rate of doing work, and for a rotating shaft that is torque times angular speed:
P=Tω⟹T=ωP
with ω in radians per second. The radian is not decorative: it is what makes the equation dimensionally clean, since ω is really an angle per unit time and the radian is the angle for which arc length equals radius. From rev/min it is ω=2πn/60.
The 5252
Every North American shop has the rule T=5252HP/RPM written on a wall somewhere, and it is exactly this equation with the unit conversions folded in. One horsepower is 33,000 ft·lbf per minute, so T=33000HP/(2πRPM), and 33000/2π=5252.11. Nothing else is going on. A pleasant consequence: at 5,252 rpm a motor's torque in ft·lbf and its power in horsepower are numerically equal, which is why every dynamometer plot of torque and power crosses at that speed.
The design lesson: slow shafts are fat shafts
At constant power, torque is inversely proportional to speed. Put a 10:1 reduction after a motor and the output shaft carries ten times the torque. That is why the low-speed end of any gearbox is always the heavy end, and it is worth doing the arithmetic once to feel the scale of it. Ten kilowatts at 3,000 rpm is about 32 N·m: a 20 mm shaft handles it comfortably. The same 10 kW at 30 rpm is about 3,180 N·m, a hundred times the torque, and since shaft diameter grows as the cube root of torque, the shaft needs to be roughly 4.6 times thicker. Low-speed machinery is heavy not because it is old-fashioned but because torque is what steel has to resist and power is not.
It also explains the direction of most drivetrains. Electric motors and engines are cheap and light at high speed and expensive and heavy at low speed, so almost every machine puts a fast, small prime mover behind a reduction, and pays for the reduction rather than for a slow motor.
Two cautions
Nameplate power is output power at rated speed and rated load. A motor started under load, or stalled, or accelerating a large inertia, produces torque that has nothing to do with this equation: starting torque can be several times full-load torque, and the shaft and coupling have to survive it. That is what a service factor is for.
And this gives the torque, not the stress. What the shaft actually feels also includes bending from the pulleys, gears and couplings hung on it, and because the shaft rotates, that bending stress fully reverses every turn, which puts it into fatigue. See the shaft sizing page.
Worked example 2.4. Given P = 15 kW, ω = 1450 rpm; find T (shaft torque). 15 kW at 1450 rpm → 98.79 N·m.
This is P=Fv rewritten for a rotating shaft: power equals torque times angular velocity, P=τω. Torque alone tells you how hard something is being twisted and says nothing about how fast work is being done; multiply by the rotation rate and you have the rate of energy delivery. It is the single most useful equation in drivetrain work, because torque is what a shaft has to be built to survive and power is what it actually delivers.
An electric motor producing 200 N·m at 3000 rpm: convert first, ω=3000×0.10472=314 rad/s, so P=200×314=62800 W, about 63 kW or 84 hp. Run the same motor at 1500 rpm at the same torque and it delivers half the power, having done nothing different at the shaft except turn more slowly.
This is what a dyno chart is plotting, and it explains the shape everyone recognises. An engine's torque curve peaks somewhere in the mid range and falls away, yet its power keeps climbing past that point, because ω is still rising faster than τ is falling. Power finally peaks where the two rates of change balance. It is also why gearing works: a gearbox trades τ against ω at constant power, so a low gear multiplies torque and divides speed, and the product, the useful output, is unchanged apart from losses.
Units are the whole difficulty here, and North American practice hides one conversion inside a magic number. The shop formula hp=τlb⋅ft×rpm/5252 is exactly this equation with the pound-foot, the revolution and the horsepower folded into a single constant. That is why every horsepower and pound-foot curve ever plotted on shared axes crosses at 5252 rpm, not a property of engines, a property of the unit system. In SI the equation needs no constant at all, but it does need ω in rad/s: feed rpm in directly and the power comes out 9.55 times too high, which is the difference between an 84 hp motor and an 800 hp one. Two further cautions. Torque and power do not peak at the same speed, so a machine specified by its peak torque and a machine specified by its peak power are being described at different operating points, and quoting one at the other's rpm is meaningless. And this is power at the shaft; a motor's electrical input is larger by whatever its efficiency costs, and the output at the far end of a gearbox is smaller again.
Worked example 2.5. Given τ = 50 N·m, ω = 20 rad/s; find P (power). 50 N·m at 20 rad/s → P = 1000 W.
Figure 2.6: shaft diameter from allowable torsional shear.
The torsion formula for a round shaft says the shear stress at radius r is τ=Tr/J. For a solid round section the polar second moment of area is J=πd4/32, and the stress is worst at the surface, where r=d/2. Substitute both and the ds collapse:
τmax=πd4/32T(d/2)=πd316T⟹d=3πτ16T
Torsional shear varies linearly from zero on the axis to maximum at the surface, which tells you immediately that the core of a solid shaft is nearly idle. That is the argument for hollow shafts: removing the inner half of the diameter takes away only about 6% of the torsional strength while removing 25% of the mass, and it is why driveshafts and aircraft transmission shafts are tubes.
The cube root is generous
Because diameter enters cubed, torque capacity is extremely sensitive to size, and size is correspondingly insensitive to torque. Eight times the torque needs only twice the diameter. A 10% increase in diameter buys a 33% increase in torque capacity. This is why shafts rarely look as heavy as the loads they carry would suggest, and why "go up one size" is such an effective piece of shop advice.
What this equation leaves out, which is most of it
Almost no real shaft carries steady torsion alone. A shaft with a pulley, a gear or a sprocket on it is also a beam, carrying bending from the belt pull or the tooth loads. And because the shaft turns, a point on its surface moves from tension to compression and back on every revolution: the bending stress is fully reversed, at the shaft speed, and the shaft is in high-cycle fatigue rather than static loading. A shaft at 1,750 rpm accumulates a million cycles in under ten hours.
The classical way to combine them is an equivalent torque. On the maximum-shear-stress (Tresca) theory, Te=M2+T2, and the same equation is then used with Te in place of T. Modern practice follows a fatigue method instead: the ASME shaft equation, or a Soderberg/Goodman construction with the mean and alternating components treated separately, and with stress-concentration and surface-finish factors applied. Either way, the number from this page is a floor, not an answer.
Two more subtractions
A keyway removes material and, more importantly, concentrates stress at its corners, with a stress concentration factor around 2 to 3 depending on the fillet radius. The common allowance is to size a keyed shaft 5–10% larger than the plain calculation, and to insist on a properly radiused keyway rather than a sharp-cornered one. Every shoulder, snap-ring groove and cross-hole does something similar.
And stiffness can govern instead of strength. A shaft that is strong enough may still wind up too far under load, which upsets gear mesh alignment and timing. The traditional limit is about one degree of twist per 20 diameters of length, from ϕ=TL/(GJ). Lateral stiffness matters too: the shaft's first bending critical speed must sit well clear of the running speed, usually by 20% or more.
Choosing the allowable
An allowable shear stress is a design decision, not a material property. It comes from the material's yield or endurance strength divided by a factor of safety, reduced by whatever the fatigue analysis demands, and it is what codes and standards exist to pin down for a given application. This page will use whatever number you give it, and the honesty of the answer is entirely the honesty of that number.
Worked example 2.6. Given T = 500 N·m, τ = 40 MPa; find d (shaft diameter). 500 N·m at 40 MPa allowable shear → 39.93 mm shaft.
A key is a small rectangular bar sitting half in a slot in the shaft and half in a slot in the hub, and its only job is to stop the two from turning relative to one another. The torque arrives at the shaft surface as a tangential force, F=2T/d, and the key resists it across a shear plane whose area is its width times its length. So:
τ=wLF=dwL2T
The shear plane is the one lying flush with the shaft surface, splitting the key into its shaft half and its hub half. That is why the width appears and not the height: the key is being sliced along its length, not crushed flat.
The second check, which is often the one that governs
A key can also fail in crushing (bearing) on its side faces, where the hub pushes against it. The bearing area is the key length times only the half of the height standing proud of the shaft, so for a key sunk half its depth:
σcrush=dhL4T
Compare the two. For a square key, h=w, so the crushing stress is exactly twice the shear stress. Whether that matters depends on the material: a ductile steel's allowable compressive stress is roughly twice its allowable shear, so for a square key in steel the two checks come out close together and either can govern. For a flat (rectangular) key, where h<w, crushing is more likely to be the limit. Check both, always.
The key is meant to break
This is the design intent and it is worth stating plainly: the key is normally specified in a material softer than both the shaft and the hub, so that an overload shears the key. A sheared key is a part you drive out with a brass punch and replace in ten minutes. A twisted shaft or a split hub is a rebuild. Specifying a key harder than the shaft (which happens when someone substitutes whatever bar stock is on the shelf) inverts the intended failure order and turns a cheap failure into an expensive one.
Length has diminishing returns
Doubling a key's length does not double its capacity in practice. The shaft winds up elastically along the key's length, so the end where the torque enters carries far more than its share and the far end carries almost nothing. Beyond roughly 1.5 shaft diameters of key length the extra material contributes very little. When one key is genuinely not enough, the answers are two keys at 180°, a splined hub (which is effectively many small keys cut integrally, and spreads the load properly), or a keyless friction fit: a taper lock, a shrink disc, or a polygon connection.
Standard proportions, and why they exist
Key sizes are standardised against shaft diameter: the width is conventionally about a quarter of the shaft diameter and the height a quarter or a sixth, with the exact series given in the public dimensional standards (ANSI B17.1 and ISO/R 773). Those proportions are not arbitrary: they are chosen so that a key of the standard size, in the standard material, is a little weaker than the shaft it sits in. If your calculation says a standard key is badly overstressed for the torque you are passing, the real conclusion is usually that the shaft is undersized too.
Worked example 2.7. Given T = 400 N·m, d = 50 mm, w = 14 mm, L = 70 mm; find τ (shear stress in the key). 400 N·m through a 14 × 70 mm key on a 50 mm shaft → 16.33 MPa.
Module 2 practice
15.The polar moment: The stock list calls out a solid 50 mm round bar for the countershaft. Work in millimetres throughout. Calculate the polar moment of area of the section.
16.The polar moment: A solid round drive shaft is turned to 100 mm diameter and listed on the shaft schedule. Work in millimetres throughout. Calculate the polar moment of area of the section.
17.Shear in the shaft: A solid 35 mm shaft in a conveyor drive carries a steady torque of 700 N·m. Work in the millimetre system. Calculate the torsional shear stress at the shaft surface.
18.Shear in the shaft: A solid 65 mm shaft in a conveyor drive carries a steady torque of 1000 N·m. Work in the millimetre system. Calculate the torsional shear stress at the shaft surface.
19.The angle of twist: A solid 30 mm steel shaft 1 m long carries a steady 150 N·m between a gearbox and a driven sheave. Take the shear modulus of the steel as 80 GPa. Determine the angle the free end twists through, in degrees.
20.The angle of twist: A solid 60 mm steel shaft 2 m long carries a steady 1100 N·m between a gearbox and a driven sheave. Take the shear modulus of the steel as 80 GPa. Determine the angle the free end twists through, in degrees.
21.Torque from power: A motor nameplate reads 37 kW at 1160 rev/min, and the machine is running at its rated duty. Calculate the torque the motor shaft carries.
22.Torque from power: A motor nameplate reads 22 kW at 2900 rev/min, and the machine is running at its rated duty. Calculate the torque the motor shaft carries.
23.Sizing the shaft: A solid round shaft has to carry 800 N·m in steady torsion. The design allowable shear stress for the material is 55 MPa. Calculate the minimum diameter the shaft must have.
24.Sizing the shaft: A solid round shaft has to carry 800 N·m in steady torsion. The design allowable shear stress for the material is 55 MPa. Calculate the minimum diameter the shaft must have.
25.Keys under shear: A sprocket is driven off a 35 mm shaft through a parallel key 10 mm wide and 50 mm long. The drive transmits 250 N·m. Calculate the average shear stress in the key.
26.Keys under shear: A sprocket is driven off a 75 mm shaft through a parallel key 20 mm wide and 100 mm long. The drive transmits 1200 N·m. Calculate the average shear stress in the key.
27.The Drive Line: Last job of the day, and the calculator stays in the drawer. A 24.5 kW drive turns a solid 50 mm steel shaft at 25 rad/s (about 239 rev/min). A 14 mm wide parallel key 70 mm long carries the torque out of the shaft and into the hub, and the key steel is rated to 45 MPa in shear. Use the shop rule J ≈ 0.1·d⁴ — the exact πd⁴/32 is 0.0982·d⁴, so the rule is inside 2%. Work each line; every answer feeds the next. Determine whether this drive line can be signed off, one line at a time.
28.The Drive Line: Bonus mark, while the paperwork prints: that same shaft feeds a 5:1 reduction gearbox. Take the gearbox as lossless. Determine the torque the gearbox output shaft carries.
Module 3
Bending and Beams
The second moment of area · Finding the centroid · Built-up sections · The section modulus · The bending moment · Stress in bending · Shear in the web · Deflection limits · The cantilever · The Beam Check
The second moment of area measures how far a section's material sits from the axis it bends about, and because the contribution goes as distance squared, it rewards depth enormously. For a rectangle, I = bh³/12 about the axis through the centroid perpendicular to h. A 50 mm × 100 mm bar bending about its strong axis has I = 0.05 × 0.1³ ÷ 12 = 4.167 × 10⁻⁶ m⁴; turn it flat and h and b swap, giving 1.042 × 10⁻⁶ m⁴, a quarter as stiff. Double the depth alone and stiffness goes up eightfold: the whole reason joists stand on edge and I-beams put their steel in the flanges.
This engine has no m⁴ unit type, so I is entered and returned as a plain number in m⁴: 1 in⁴ = 4.162314 × 10⁻⁷ m⁴ and 1 mm⁴ = 10⁻¹² m⁴. The trap is the cube: get b and h the wrong way round and you are not off by a little, you are off by (h/b)⁴. For a 2 × 8 that is a factor of 16. And this formula is only valid about the centroidal axis; if the rectangle is a flange offset from the neutral axis of a built-up section, you must add the parallel-axis term Ad².
Worked example 3.1. Given b = 50 mm, h = 100 mm; find I (area moment of inertia). 50 x 100 mm strong axis → 4.1667e-6 m⁴.
Figure 3.2: area moment of inertia: solid round bar.
A circle is the same in every direction, so a solid round bar has the same I about every axis through its centre: πd⁴/64. A 100 mm bar gives I = π × 0.1⁴ ÷ 64 = 4.909 × 10⁻⁶ m⁴. The fourth power is brutal in both directions: a 2-inch shaft is sixteen times stiffer in bending than a 1-inch shaft, and a 10% undersize bar has lost a third of its stiffness.
That fourth power is also the argument for hollow sections. Subtracting the inner circle gives I = π(d⁴ − dᵢ⁴)/64, and because the removed core sits close to the neutral axis it was contributing almost nothing: bore a 100 mm bar out to 50 mm and you lose 6% of the stiffness while shedding 25% of the weight. It is why scaffold tube, bicycle frames and drill pipe are all round and hollow. Remember the value here is in m⁴, convert with 1 in⁴ = 4.162314 × 10⁻⁷ m⁴, and do not confuse it with the polar moment J = πd⁴/32, which is exactly twice as large and belongs to torsion, not bending.
Worked example 3.2. Given d = 100 mm; find I (area moment of inertia). 100 mm round bar → I = 4.9087e-6 m⁴.
(Mechanics of Materials-20)yˉ=A1+A2A1y1+A2y2
Where
yˉ= Centroid of the whole section from the datum (mm)
A1= Area of part 1 (m²)
y1= Centroid of part 1 from the datum (mm)
A2= Area of part 2 (m²)
y2= Centroid of part 2 from the datum (mm)
Before you can compute anything about a built-up section (its second moment of area, its section modulus, the stress at the top fibre) you have to know where its neutral axis is. For a symmetric shape you know by inspection. For a T, an angle, a channel, a flitch beam or a plate welded to a rolled section, you have to find it, and the way you find it is an area-weighted average: yˉ=∑Ai∑Aiyi.
Work a T-section: a 200 × 20 mm flange sitting on a 20 × 180 mm stem, measured from the bottom of the stem. The flange has A1=4000 mm² with its own centroid at y1=190 mm; the stem has A2=3600 mm² at y2=90 mm. So yˉ=(4000×190+3600×90)/7600=1084000/7600=142.6 mm from the bottom. The neutral axis sits well up in the stem, nowhere near mid-depth, which is exactly why a T-section is so much stronger one way up than the other.
Three things go wrong with this calculation, and none of them announces itself. The datum has to be the same for every part: mixing "from the bottom" for one piece and "from the top" for another produces a perfectly plausible wrong answer. The yi are the parts' own centroids, not their edges. And more than two parts is handled by applying this twice: combine any two, treat the result as a single part of area A1+A2 at yˉ, then bring in the third. Cut-outs enter as negative areas in the general method; here, subtract them by hand and keep the datum straight. Once yˉ is right, the parallel axis theorem measures every transfer distance from it, and an error here propagates squared into everything downstream.
Worked example 3.3. Given A1 = 4000 mm², y1 = 190 mm, A2 = 3600 mm², y2 = 90 mm; find yˉ (centroid of the whole section from the datum). 200x20 flange on a 20x180 stem → ybar = 142.63 mm.
Ic= Moment of inertia about the part's own centroid (mm⁴)
A= Area of the part (m²)
d= Distance between the two axes (m)
Figure 3.4: parallel axis theorem (i = i_c + ad²).
A section's second moment of area is only ever quoted about one particular axis, and the moment you build a shape out of parts, most of those parts are nowhere near the axis the whole thing bends about. The transfer term fixes that in one line: move an area A a distance d away from its own centroid and its contribution grows by Ad². Take a 200 × 20 mm flange plate sitting 240 mm above the neutral axis of a girder. Its own Ic=bh3/12=133333 mm⁴; the transfer term is 4000×2402=230,400,000 mm⁴. The plate's own stiffness is 0.06% of what it actually delivers.
That ratio is the whole argument for the I-beam. Material only earns its keep by being far from the neutral axis, and the transfer term is quadratic while the local term is not. It also explains a fact that surprises people: you can nearly always ignore Ic for a thin flange and lose almost nothing, but you can never ignore it for the web, whose centroid is right on the axis and whose entire contribution is the local term.
Two traps. The theorem only works from the part's own centroidal axis outward, never between two arbitrary parallel axes, so if you already transferred once you must come back to the centroid before transferring again. And d is measured to the centroid of the composite section, which you have to locate first by taking area moments. Getting the composite centroid wrong is the most common failure in a built-up section calculation, and it is silent: the arithmetic all works, the answer is just wrong.
Worked example 3.4. Given Ic = 133333.333 mm⁴, A = 4000 mm², d = 240 mm; find I (moment of inertia about the new axis). 200x20 flange plate offset 240 mm → 2.3053e8 mm⁴.
(Mechanics of Materials-22)I=12BH3−(B−tw)(H−2tf)3
Where
I= Moment of inertia, strong axis (mm⁴)
B= Flange width (mm)
H= Overall depth (mm)
tw= Web thickness (mm)
tf= Flange thickness (mm)
Figure 3.5: moment of inertia: i-beam or built-up section.
The fastest way to the strong-axis I of a doubly symmetric I-shape is not to add flanges and web, it is to subtract. Take the full bounding rectangle BH3/12 and remove the two rectangular voids that flank the web, each of width (B−tw)/2 and depth h=H−2tf. A 200 × 400 welded girder with 20 mm flanges and a 10 mm web gives (200×4003−190×3603)/12=327,946,667 mm⁴. Check it the long way (web 10×3603/12=38.88 million, plus two flanges each contributing 133,333+4000×1902=144.53 million) and you land on the same number. The box-minus-voids route is one expression instead of five and it never asks you to find a centroid.
What the arithmetic shows is where the stiffness lives. In that girder the two flanges supply 88% of I and the web supplies 12%, even though the web is nearly half the steel. The web is not there for bending at all; it is there to carry shear and to hold the flanges apart. Change the depth from 400 to 500 mm with the same plates and I rises by roughly 60% for no extra weight, which is the reason plate girders get deep and thin rather than short and fat.
The limits worth knowing: this is the strong axis only, it assumes sharp corners rather than the rolled fillets that make a real W-shape a percent or two stiffer than the formula, and it says nothing about whether the section can actually reach that stiffness. A deep thin web buckles, and an unbraced compression flange rolls sideways long before the fibres reach yield. Compactness and lateral bracing are separate checks that I cannot see.
Worked example 3.5. Given B = 200 mm, H = 400 mm, tw = 10 mm, tf = 20 mm; find I (moment of inertia, strong axis). 200x400 girder, 20 mm flanges, 10 mm web → 3.2795e8 mm⁴.
Bending stress is Mc/I, and for a given shape the c and the I never change, so designers precombine them into one number, S = I/c, and the stress check becomes the one-liner σ = M/S. A 50 mm × 100 mm rectangle has I = 4.167 × 10⁻⁶ m⁴ and c = 0.05 m, so S = 8.333 × 10⁻⁵ m³. Every steel manual on every job site is really a table of S values: pick the lightest beam whose S beats M/σ_allow and the sizing is done.
Two cautions. This engine has no m³ unit type, so S is a plain number in m³ (1 in³ = 1.6387 × 10⁻⁵ m³, 1 mm³ = 10⁻⁹ m³). And a section that is not symmetric about its bending axis (a channel, a tee, an unequal-flange girder) has two different values of c and therefore two section moduli, one for the tension face and one for the compression face. Use the smaller S, which belongs to the fibre furthest from the neutral axis, or you will check the wrong face. Note also that S here is the elastic modulus; plastic design uses Z, which for a rectangle is 1.5 times larger.
Worked example 3.6. Given I = 4.1666667e-6 m⁴, c = 50 mm; find S (section modulus). 50 x 100 mm rectangle → S = 8.333e-5 m³.
Figure 3.7: max bending moment: centre point load.
Drop a single load P at the middle of a beam that simply rests on two supports and each support takes P/2. Walk out to midspan and the moment there is (P/2)(L/2) = PL/4: the largest anywhere on the beam, and it falls off linearly to zero at each support. A 10 kN hoist hung at the centre of a 6 m span produces M = 10 000 × 6 ÷ 4 = 15 000 N·m = 15 kN·m.
The lesson buried in the L is that span is expensive: doubling the span doubles the moment for the same load, and the beam you need grows much faster than that once deflection is added to the picture. The trap is the word simply supported. This result assumes the ends are free to rotate: a beam of the same span with fixed ends carries only PL/8 at midspan, and a cantilever of length L with the load at its tip carries PL, four times as much. Check the end conditions before reaching for the coefficient, and remember to add the beam's own weight, which contributes its own wL²/8.
Worked example 3.7. Given P = 10 kN, L = 6 m; find M (maximum bending moment). 10 kN at midspan of 6 m → 15 kN·m.
wL²/8 is the most-used number in structural engineering. Spread a load evenly along a simply supported beam (its own weight, a floor, snow on a roof, a run of water-filled pipe) and the moment diagram is a parabola peaking at midspan with the value wL²/8. A 5 kN/m load on a 4 m span gives M = 5000 × 16 ÷ 8 = 10 000 N·m. The square on L is the important part: stretch the span by 50% and the moment goes up by 125%.
Enter w as force per unit length: this calculator borrows the N/m unit family, which also offers kN/m, lbf/ft and lbf/in. Two traps. First, converting an area load to a line load requires the tributary width: 2.4 kPa of floor load on joists at 400 mm centres is 2.4 × 0.4 = 0.96 kN/m per joist, and forgetting the tributary width is the most common error in the whole calculation. Second, this is the simply supported case; a fixed-fixed beam peaks at wL²/12 over the supports and only wL²/24 at midspan, and a propped cantilever gives wL²/8 at the fixed end. Continuous multi-span beams are somewhere in between, which is why they use less steel.
Worked example 3.8. Given w = 5 kN/m, L = 4 m; find M (maximum bending moment). 5 kN/m over 4 m → 10 kN·m.
Bend a beam and the top fibres shorten while the bottom fibres lengthen; somewhere between runs a neutral axis that does neither, and the stress grows linearly with distance c from it, peaking at the outermost fibre. Galileo posed the problem in Two New Sciences in 1638, sketching a cantilever built into a wall, but he assumed the beam pivoted about its bottom face, with the entire section in tension, and so overestimated a rectangular beam's strength by a factor of three. Antoine Parent in 1713 and Coulomb in 1773 put the neutral axis where it belongs, at the centroid, and the formula settled into the shape used ever since.
A 10 kN·m moment on a 50 × 100 mm rectangle (I = 4.167 × 10⁻⁶ m⁴, c = 0.05 m) gives σ = 10 000 × 0.05 ÷ 4.167 × 10⁻⁶ = 120 MPa. Two traps. First, I must be in m⁴ and M in N·m here: mixing in⁴ with N·m produces a number wrong by seven orders of magnitude. Second, c is measured from the neutral axis, which for a symmetric section is the mid-depth (half the total depth, not the full depth) and for an unsymmetric one must be located by finding the centroid first. The formula also assumes pure bending of a straight, prismatic, elastic beam; sharp notches, holes and welds concentrate stress well above what it predicts.
Worked example 3.9. Given M = 10 kN·m, c = 50 mm, I = 4.1666667e-6 m⁴; find σ (bending stress). 10 kN·m on 50 x 100 mm → 120 MPa.
3.10 Bending Stress from Section Modulus (σ = M/S)
Figure 3.10: bending stress from section modulus (σ = m/s).
This is how beams are actually selected in the field. Work out the maximum moment, divide by the allowable stress, and you have the section modulus you must buy: S ≥ M/σ_allow. A 20 000 ft·lbf moment at an allowable 24 ksi needs S = 240 000 in·lbf ÷ 24 000 psi = 10 in³: flip to the table, find the lightest shape with S above 10 in³, done. In SI the same check on a 10 kN·m moment through a section with S = 8.333 × 10⁻⁵ m³ gives σ = 10 000 ÷ 8.333 × 10⁻⁵ = 120 MPa.
Enter S as a plain number in m³ (1 in³ = 1.6387 × 10⁻⁵ m³) and M in newton-metres; the answer comes back in pascals. The trap is that passing the stress check is not the same as passing the design. A beam sized purely on S may still deflect visibly, may buckle sideways if its compression flange is unbraced, and may crush its web where it lands on a bearing plate. Stress, deflection, lateral-torsional buckling and bearing are four separate checks, and in long shallow spans deflection usually governs first.
Worked example 3.10. Given M = 10 kN·m, S = 8.3333333e-5 m³; find σ (bending stress). 10 kN·m through S = 8.333e-5 m³ → 120 MPa.
Bending stress varies linearly from the neutral axis and peaks at the extreme fibres. Shear stress does the exact opposite: it is zero at the top and bottom faces (there is nothing outside to shear against) and maximum on the neutral axis, the one place where the bending stress is nil. For a solid rectangle the algebra collapses to a memorable shortcut: τmax=1.5V/A. A 50 × 150 mm section carrying 30 kN gives 1.5×30,000/0.0075=6 MPa, and running the full VQ/Ib with Q=140,625 mm³, I=14.06×106 mm⁴ and b=50 mm returns the same 6 MPa. Two routes, one answer.
Dmitrii Zhuravskii derived this in the 1840s after timber bridges on the Saint Petersburg–Moscow railway kept splitting along their length rather than snapping across, and the split is the signature: a wooden beam overloaded in shear fails horizontally near mid-depth, right where this formula says the stress is worst. The same logic sizes the web of a steel beam, where the shortcut is different again: for a wide flange, nearly all the shear rides in the web, and designers approximate τ≈V/(dtw) and get within a few percent.
The trap is b: it is the width at the cut you are examining, not the overall width. Step from a flange into a web on a tee or an I-shape and b drops by an order of magnitude while Q barely changes, so the stress jumps discontinuously at the fillet. That step is real in the formula and smoothed in the actual part, which is why the theory overpredicts slightly at re-entrant corners and why the underlying assumption, shear uniform across the width, quietly fails in a wide, shallow section.
Worked example 3.11. Given V = 30 kN, Q = 140625 mm³, I = 14062500 mm⁴, b = 50 mm; find τ (transverse shear stress). 30 kN on a 50x150 rectangle → 6 MPa (= 1.5 V/A).
Shear flow is the answer to a practical question: if I make a beam out of two pieces, how hard do they try to slide past each other? Bending stress varies along the length, so the force pulling on the top piece at one cross-section differs from the force at the next, and the difference has to cross the glue line. q=VQ/I gives that difference per unit length, in newtons per metre or pounds per inch. With V=60 kN, Q=1.2×106 mm³ and I=4×108 mm⁴, q=180 kN/m, so a pair of nails good for 3 kN together need spacing 6000/180,000=33 mm.
The variable that trips everyone is Q, the first moment of the area beyond the cut: take only the part of the section on one side of the joint, multiply its area by the distance from its centroid to the neutral axis. Not the whole section. Not the area on the axis side. And Q is largest at the neutral axis, so a joint placed there is the hardest working one in the beam. That is exactly why a plywood box beam gets its web glued continuously rather than with a few fasteners, and why the flange-to-web weld of a plate girder is sized on shear flow rather than on anything the bending calculation produces.
Something the formula quietly reveals: shear flow does not depend on how strongly the pieces are pressed together, only on the shear force and the geometry. Two boards stacked loose and two boards glued into a solid section carry the same total load very differently: the loose pair each bend about their own axis, and the glued pair are four times stiffer for a doubled depth. The connection is what buys the composite action, and q is the price.
Worked example 3.12. Given V = 60 kN, Q = 1200000 mm³, I = 400000000 mm⁴; find q (shear flow). 60 kN, Q = 1.2e6 mm³, I = 4e8 mm⁴ → 180 kN/m.
3.13 Beam Deflection: Simply Supported, Centre Load
Figure 3.13: beam deflection: simply supported, centre load.
Strength decides whether a beam breaks; stiffness decides whether anyone will walk on it happily. A 20 kN load at the centre of a 4 m steel span with I = 4.167 × 10⁻⁶ m⁴ deflects δ = 20 000 × 4³ ÷ (48 × 200 × 10⁹ × 4.167 × 10⁻⁶) = 0.032 m: 32 mm, or L/125, far past any serviceability limit even if the stresses are fine. Codes usually cap live-load deflection at L/360 for plastered ceilings (the number dates from the era when plaster cracked visibly at about that curvature) and L/240 overall.
The L³ is the headline: doubling the span multiplies the sag by eight, and the only real cures are more depth (I goes as h³) or a shorter span. Note that E and I always appear together as the product EI, the flexural rigidity, which is why "use stronger steel" never fixes a bouncy floor, since all structural steels share E = 200 GPa. Remember to enter I as a plain number in m⁴, and to superimpose cases: a beam carrying both its own uniform weight and a point load deflects by the sum of 5wL⁴/384EI and PL³/48EI.
Worked example 3.13. Given P = 20 kN, L = 4 m, E = 200 GPa, I = 4.1666667e-6 m⁴; find δ (maximum deflection). 20 kN at midspan of 4 m → 32 mm sag.
The odd-looking 5/384 comes straight from integrating the parabolic moment diagram of a uniformly loaded simply supported beam twice; it works out to 0.013021. A 10 kN/m load on a 5 m span with E = 200 GPa and I = 10⁻⁴ m⁴ sags δ = 5 × 10 000 × 5⁴ ÷ (384 × 200 × 10⁹ × 10⁻⁴) = 0.00407 m, about 4 mm, or L/1230: a comfortably stiff floor.
Now the fourth power. Going from a 4 m to a 5 m span with everything else unchanged multiplies the deflection by (5/4)⁴ = 2.44, and it is this exponent, not stress, that governs most residential floor framing: the joists are almost always chosen for bounce, not for strength. A useful shortcut is that the uniform-load deflection is 5/8 of the deflection a single mid-span point load of the same total magnitude would cause, so wL total spread out sags less than the same weight concentrated at the middle. Enter w in force per unit length (N/m, kN/m, lbf/ft) and I as a plain number in m⁴; forgetting the tributary width when turning a floor pressure into w is the classic mistake here.
Worked example 3.14. Given w = 10 kN/m, L = 5 m, E = 200 GPa, I = 1.0e-4 m⁴; find δ (maximum deflection). 10 kN/m over 5 m → 4.069 mm sag.
The cantilever is the shape Galileo drew in 1638 and the one every diving board, balcony and pipe-support bracket still copies. With the load at the tip, δ = PL³/3EI: sixteen times the sag a simply supported beam of the same span, load and section would show, because the fixed end must resist the full moment PL rather than sharing it with a second support. A 2 kN load on the end of a 2 m steel cantilever with I = 4.167 × 10⁻⁶ m⁴ droops δ = 2000 × 8 ÷ (3 × 200 × 10⁹ × 4.167 × 10⁻⁶) = 0.0064 m, 6.4 mm.
Everything hinges on the word fixed. The formula assumes the built-in end has zero rotation, and in real life that is the hardest thing to achieve: a bracket bolted to a flexible column, a beam pocketed into masonry, or a weld that is not full-strength will all rotate, and the tip deflection then comes out well above prediction. Measure the true rotation, or design conservatively. If instead the load is spread uniformly along the cantilever, the coefficient becomes wL⁴/8EI; and enter I as a plain number in m⁴, since this engine has no m⁴ unit.
Worked example 3.15. Given P = 2 kN, L = 2 m, E = 200 GPa, I = 4.1666667e-6 m⁴; find δ (tip deflection). 2 kN on a 2 m cantilever → 6.4 mm tip sag.
Spread a load along a cantilever instead of hanging it at the tip and the coefficient becomes wL4/8EI. A 2 m steel cantilever with I=107 mm⁴ carrying 5 kN/m droops 5000×16/(8×2.0×1011×10−5)=5 mm. Compare it against the same total load, 10 kN, concentrated at the free end, which gives PL3/3EI=13.3 mm. The distributed case is exactly three-eighths of that, because most of the load sits closer to the fixed end where it has less leverage.
The fourth power on length is the part that governs design. Add a third to the projection of a balcony, from 1.5 m to 2 m, and the deflection multiplies by (2/1.5)4=3.16 for the same slab and the same load per square metre. Cantilevers are the members where serviceability nearly always beats strength: the usual limit is L/180 on the projection, which for a 2 m balcony means 11 mm, and there is no visual reference point out there to hide the sag against, so people notice a droop on a cantilever that they would never see mid-span.
Everything here also assumes the fixed end is genuinely fixed. It rarely is. A bracket bolted to a flexible column, a joist pocketed into masonry, or a slab cantilevering off a beam that itself twists will all rotate at the support, and that rotation adds θL directly to the tip deflection: often more than the flexural term this formula computes. Also remember to superimpose: a balcony carries its own uniform weight and a rail load at the tip, and the two deflections simply add.
Worked example 3.16. Given w = 5 kN/m, L = 2 m, E = 200 GPa, I = 10000000 mm⁴; find δ (tip deflection). 5 kN/m over 2 m steel, I = 1e7 mm⁴ → 5 mm.
Module 3 practice
29.The second moment of area: A rectangular steel bar 100 mm wide by 250 mm deep is to be used as a lintel, bent about the axis that leaves the 250 mm dimension in the bending plane. Calculate the second moment of area of the section about its centroidal axis.
30.The second moment of area: A solid round shaft of 80 mm diameter is to be checked as a beam, bending about a diameter. Calculate the second moment of area of the round section.
31.Finding the centroid: A T-section is built from two rectangles. The flange is 120 mm wide by 40 mm thick and sits on top of a stem 20 mm thick by 160 mm high. Every height is to be measured from the underside of the stem. Calculate the height of the section's centroid above the underside of the stem.
32.Finding the centroid: A rolled steel beam 350 mm deep has a cross-sectional area of 6000 mm², and it is symmetric, so its own centroid lies at mid-depth. A cover plate 200 mm wide by 10 mm thick is welded flat on top of its upper flange. Heights are measured from the underside of the beam. Determine the height of the centroid of the strengthened section.
33.Built-up sections: A plate girder is being built up. One flange plate measures 150 mm wide by 12 mm thick, and its own centroid sits 180 mm from the neutral axis of the finished girder. Calculate that plate's contribution to the second moment of area of the whole section.
34.Built-up sections: A welded I-section has flanges 240 mm wide and 22 mm thick, a web 12 mm thick, and an overall depth of 480 mm measured outside of flange to outside of flange. Determine the second moment of area of the section about its strong axis.
35.The section modulus: A beam section has a second moment of area of 112.5 ×10⁶ mm⁴, and it is 300 mm deep with its neutral axis at mid-depth. Calculate the elastic section modulus of the section.
36.The section modulus: A fabricated section is measured at 180 ×10⁶ mm⁴, and the shop drawing rates it at 1200 ×10³ mm³. Determine how far the extreme fibre lies from the neutral axis.
37.The bending moment: A simply supported beam spans 8 m between its two supports and carries a single 25 kN point load at midspan. The beam's own weight is neglected. Calculate the maximum bending moment in the beam.
38.The bending moment: A simply supported beam spans 4 m and carries a uniformly distributed load of 5 kN/m over its whole length. Determine the maximum bending moment in the beam.
39.Stress in bending: A beam with a section modulus of 750 ×10³ mm³ is limited by its code to an allowable bending stress of 80 MPa. Determine the largest bending moment the section may be asked to carry.
40.Stress in bending: A beam must carry a bending moment of 240 kN·m, and the material's allowable bending stress is 120 MPa. Determine the section modulus the beam must have.
41.Shear in the web: A solid rectangular beam 50 mm wide by 150 mm deep carries a transverse shear force of 30 kN at the section being checked. The cut of interest is taken at the neutral axis. Calculate the transverse shear stress at the neutral axis.
42.Shear in the web: A built-up beam is made from two 80 mm by 80 mm timbers, one glued on top of the other, giving a section 80 mm wide and 160 mm deep. At the section being checked the beam carries a transverse shear of 12 kN, and the glue line lies exactly at the neutral axis. Determine the shear flow the glue line must carry.
43.Deflection limits: A simply supported steel beam spans 6 m and carries a 30 kN point load at midspan. Its second moment of area is 150 ×10⁶ mm⁴ and its modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. Calculate the maximum deflection of the beam.
44.Deflection limits: A simply supported steel beam spans 4 m under a uniformly distributed load of 12 kN/m. Its second moment of area is 50 ×10⁶ mm⁴ and its modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. Determine the midspan deflection of the beam.
45.The cantilever: A steel balcony beam projects 2 m from the face of a building and is built in rigidly at that face. A 30 kN point load is applied at the free end. The beam's second moment of area is 80 ×10⁶ mm⁴ and its modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. Calculate the deflection of the free end.
46.The cantilever: A cantilevered canopy beam projects 2 m from its built-in support and carries a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m along its whole projection. Its second moment of area is 20 ×10⁶ mm⁴ and its modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. Determine the deflection of the free end.
47.The Beam Check: Last check of the day, and the calculator is in the truck. A sawn timber joist 150 mm wide by 200 mm deep is installed on edge over a simply supported span of 4 m, carrying a uniformly distributed load of 4 kN/m. The species allowable in bending is 12 MPa. Work each line — every answer feeds the next. Determine whether the joist passes its bending check, one line at a time.
48.The Beam Check: Bonus mark, on the way out. The same 75 by 400 mm joist has been delivered to site and laid FLAT by mistake, so the 75 mm dimension now runs in the bending plane. Determine the section modulus of the joist as laid.
Module 4
Columns, Vessels, Combined Stress
Slenderness · Euler buckling · Hoop stress · The vessel, two ways · The spherical head · When the wall is thick · Thickness by the code · Combined stresses · Principal stresses · Will it yield? · Stress raisers · The Vessel Audit
The radius of gyration answers a neat question: if you scraped all the material of a section into two thin strips, how far from the axis would they have to sit to give the same I? That distance is r=I/A, and it is the honest measure of how spread out a section is, independent of how much metal it contains. For a rectangle bending about its strong axis r=h/12=0.2887h, so a 50 × 100 mm bar has r = 0.02887 m about that axis, and only 0.01443 m about the weak one.
Its whole purpose is column design, where the slenderness ratio KL/r decides everything. Because a column buckles about whichever axis has the smaller r, the least radius of gyration is the one that matters: a wide-flange section is often several times weaker about its y-axis than its x-axis, which is why columns get their weak axis braced. Handbook tables list rx and ry for every rolled shape precisely so this ratio can be formed without touching I at all. Remember I goes in as a plain number in m⁴ while A uses a real area unit, so the answer comes out as a length.
Worked example 4.1. Given I = 4.1666667e-6 m⁴, A = 5000 mm²; find r (radius of gyration). 50 x 100 mm rectangle → r = 28.87 mm.
Slenderness is the ratio of a column's effective length to the spread of its own cross-section, and it sorts compression members into three families. Below about KL/r = 40 a steel member is "short" and simply squashes at its yield stress. Above roughly 120 it is genuinely slender and Euler's elastic buckling governs. In between sits the awkward inelastic range where partial yielding and residual stresses from rolling and welding drag the real capacity below both curves: the reason design codes use empirical transition formulas rather than Euler alone. A 3 m pinned column with r = 0.02887 m has λ = 1.0 × 3 ÷ 0.02887 = 104, right in that transition band.
Codes cap slenderness for practical reasons too: KL/r ≤ 200 for compression members and ≤ 300 for tension members in most steel practice, mostly so that pieces are not so whippy they get damaged in shipping and erection. Two traps. Use the least radius of gyration, and use the unbraced length for that axis: a column braced at mid-height about its weak axis has two different lengths to check, and the governing λ may belong to either. K itself is where judgement lives: the theoretical 0.5 for fixed-fixed is almost never achieved in real construction, so 0.65 is the recommended design value.
Worked example 4.2. Given K = 2, L = 10 ft, r = 1.5 in; find λ (slenderness ratio). K = 2, L = 10 ft, r = 1.5 in → KL/r = 160.
A slender column does not fail by crushing: it goes sideways, suddenly and without warning, at a load that has nothing to do with the material's strength. Leonhard Euler solved the problem in 1744 as an appendix on elastic curves, and the result is startling: only E, I and length appear. A high-strength steel column and a mild steel column of identical shape buckle at exactly the same load. A 4 m pinned steel column with I = 10⁻⁵ m⁴ carries Pcr = π² × 200 × 10⁹ × 10⁻⁵ ÷ 4² = 1.234 × 10⁶ N, about 1234 kN.
K captures the end restraint by converting the real length into the effective length between inflection points: 1.0 pinned-pinned, 0.5 fixed-fixed, 0.7 fixed-pinned, and 2.0 for a flagpole fixed at the base and free at the top, which means a cantilevered column buckles at a sixteenth of the pinned-pinned load. Two traps. Use the least I of the section, since the column buckles about its weak axis, and check slenderness: below KL/r of roughly 100–120 for steel the column yields before Euler's elastic curve is reached, and the formula badly overpredicts. The 1907 Quebec Bridge collapse, which killed 75 workers, came down to compression chords whose buckling capacity had been overestimated on exactly that kind of error.
Worked example 4.3. Given E = 200 GPa, I = 1.0e-5 m⁴, K = 1, L = 4 m; find Pcr (critical buckling load). pinned 4 m steel column, I = 1e-5 m⁴ → 1234 kN.
Figure 4.4: hoop stress in a thin-walled cylinder.
Slice a pressurised pipe lengthwise and the pressure acting on the projected area d × L must be held by two wall strips of area t × L: p·d·L = 2·σ·t·L, so σ = pd/2t. Edme Mariotte worked this out in the 1680s while sorting out burst pipes in the waterworks feeding the fountains at Versailles. A 1 m diameter vessel at 2 MPa with a 10 mm wall carries σ = 2 × 10⁶ × 1 ÷ (2 × 0.01) = 100 MPa. In field units, 150 psi in a 24-inch line needs t = 150 × 24 ÷ (2 × 15 000) = 0.12 inch of wall before any corrosion or mill-tolerance allowance.
Hoop stress is twice the longitudinal stress, which is why an overpressured pipe splits along its length rather than snapping in two, and why a boiled sausage always bursts lengthwise. The 1954 de Havilland Comet crashes made the point at altitude: repeated pressurisation cycles drove fatigue cracks from the corners of the fuselage cutouts, where the hoop stress concentrated far above the nominal value. The investigation rewrote how the world thinks about fatigue and stress concentration. Two limits on the formula: it is a thin-wall result, valid when d/t is greater than about 20, and it uses gauge pressure, the difference across the wall.
Worked example 4.4. Given p = 2 MPa, d = 1 m, t = 10 mm; find σh (hoop stress). 1 m vessel, 10 mm wall, 2 MPa → 100 MPa hoop.
Figure 4.5: longitudinal stress in a thin-walled cylinder.
Cap the ends of a pressurised cylinder and the pressure pushes them apart with a force p × πd²/4, resisted by the full ring of wall material, area πdt. Equate the two and σ = pd/4t: precisely half the hoop stress in the same vessel. The same 1 m vessel at 2 MPa with a 10 mm wall carries 100 MPa around the circumference but only 50 MPa along its axis.
That 2:1 split explains a lot of everyday behaviour: a pipe under excessive pressure splits along a longitudinal seam, a sausage skin splits the long way, and the girth (circumferential) welds joining pipe spools see only half the stress that a longitudinal seam weld does, which is why pipe manufacturing standards obsess over the long seam and why spiral-welded pipe places its seam on a helix to keep it off the worst direction. The catch: only a closed vessel develops this stress. A pipe with an expansion joint, a slip coupling or an open end passes the end thrust into anchors and thrust blocks instead: the buried-main equivalent, where an unrestrained bend will walk out of the ground if the thrust block is undersized.
Worked example 4.5. Given p = 2 MPa, d = 1 m, t = 10 mm; find σl (longitudinal stress). 1 m vessel, 10 mm wall, 2 MPa → 50 MPa longitudinal.
4.6 Membrane Stress in a Thin-Walled Sphere (σ = pr/2t)
Cut a pressurised sphere in half through any great circle and the argument writes itself. The pressure pushes the two halves apart with a force pπr2, the area of the flat disc it acts on. The wall resists across a thin ring of circumference 2πr and thickness t, so σ⋅2πrt=pπr2 and σ=pr/2t. The cut could have been made anywhere, in any orientation, which is the whole point: a sphere has no worse direction. A 3 m diameter sphere at 1.5 MPa with a 12 mm wall carries 1.5×106×1.5/(2×0.012)=93.75 MPa, the same in every direction in the wall.
Set that beside a cylinder of the same radius and wall. The cylinder's longitudinal stress is also pr/2t, but its hoop stress is pr/t, twice as much, and it is the hoop stress that governs. So a sphere of the same material and pressure needs half the wall a cylinder needs, and holds about twice the pressure at the same thickness. That is why LPG and cryogenic storage past a certain size goes spherical, and why the ends of a cylindrical vessel are dished rather than flat.
The membrane solution assumes the stress is uniform through the thickness and that there is no bending. Both assumptions expire together once t is more than about a tenth of r, at which point the real bore stress is meaningfully higher and the thick-wall solution is needed. Bending also reappears wherever the membrane cannot follow its own shape: at nozzles, at supports, and at the seam where a dished head meets a cylindrical shell. Those discontinuity stresses are local, they are often several times the membrane value, and no version of pr/2t will find them.
Worked example 4.6. Given p = 1.5 MPa, r = 1.5 m, t = 12 mm; find σ (membrane stress). 3 m sphere, 12 mm wall, 1.5 MPa → 93.75 MPa.
(Mechanics of Materials-40)σθ=ro2−ri2piri2(1+r2ro2)
Where
σθ= Hoop stress at radius r (kPa)
pi= Internal gauge pressure (kPa)
ri= Inside radius (mm)
ro= Outside radius (mm)
r= Radius at which the stress is wanted (mm)
The thin-wall formula pretends the stress is the same all the way through the wall. In a thick cylinder it plainly is not: the bore is being pushed on directly and the outside surface is not being pushed on at all. Lamé's solution, from 1833, gives the whole profile. For internal pressure only, σθ=ro2−ri2piri2(1+r2ro2): largest at the bore and falling as 1/r2 toward the outside.
Take a cylinder bored to 100 mm radius, 200 mm outside, at 60 MPa internal. At the bore the hoop stress is 60(0.030.05)=100 MPa; at the outside surface it has dropped to 2×60×0.01/0.03=40 MPa. The difference between those two, 60 MPa, is exactly the applied pressure, and that is not a coincidence of these numbers but an identity of the solution, which makes it a free check on any pair of answers you compute.
The engineering consequence is the one that catches people out. Doubling the wall thickness does not halve the bore stress. Push ro to infinity in the expression and the bore hoop stress tends to pi, not to zero: a solid block of steel with a hole in it still sees a hoop stress equal to the pressure. So for very high pressures there is a wall thickness past which adding metal buys almost nothing, and the answer has to come from somewhere else: a compound cylinder shrunk together, or autofrettage, both of which put the bore into residual compression before it ever sees service. Those residual fields are invisible to this equation, which knows only about a homogeneous elastic wall with nothing locked into it.
Worked example 4.7. Given pi = 60 MPa, ri = 100 mm, ro = 200 mm, r = 100 mm; find σθ (hoop stress at radius r). 100/200 mm cylinder at 60 MPa, bore → 100 MPa hoop.
(Mechanics of Materials-41)σr=ro2−ri2piri2(1−r2ro2)
Where
σr= Radial stress at radius r (negative = compressive) (kPa)
pi= Internal gauge pressure (kPa)
ri= Inside radius (mm)
ro= Outside radius (mm)
r= Radius at which the stress is wanted (mm)
The radial stress is the half of Lamé's solution that people forget, and it is the half that tells you the boundary conditions are being obeyed. At the bore the wall is being pushed on by the fluid, so σr=−pi exactly: the pressure, in compression. At the outside surface there is nothing pushing, so σr=0 exactly. In between it climbs from one to the other along σr=ro2−ri2piri2(1−r2ro2), and it is compressive the entire way.
On the 100/200 mm cylinder at 60 MPa, midwall at r=150 mm gives σr=−15.56 MPa against a hoop stress of +55.56 MPa. Add them: 40 MPa, which is the same sum you get at the bore (100−60) and at the outside (40+0). The sum σθ+σr is constant through the entire wall thickness. Their difference is not: σθ−σr is largest at the bore, and since that difference is what drives yielding under both Tresca and von Mises, the bore is where the cylinder gives up first.
Which is the practical reason to bother with the radial stress at all. A yield check that uses only the hoop stress ignores a compression of magnitude pi acting at right angles to it, and at high pressures that is not a small correction. Take both to a von Mises or Tresca comparison and the answer changes materially. The sign convention matters too: this page returns σr negative, because it is compression, and dropping the minus sign on the way into a combined-stress calculation is a quiet and expensive mistake.
Worked example 4.8. Given pi = 60 MPa, ri = 100 mm, ro = 200 mm, r = 100 mm; find σr (radial stress at radius r (negative = compressive)). bore radial stress is exactly -p → -60 MPa.
This is the equation a pressure vessel is actually built to. ASME Section VIII Division 1, paragraph UG-27(c)(1), gives the required thickness of a cylindrical shell for circumferential stress as t=SE−0.6PPR, with R the inside radius in the corroded condition, S the maximum allowable stress from the Section II Part D table for that material at that temperature, and E the joint efficiency from UW-12. A vessel at 300 psi with a 24 in inside radius in a material good for 17 500 psi, fully radiographed so E=1.0, needs 7200/17320=0.416 in.
Two features distinguish it from the textbook pr/t. The E is a penalty for not knowing whether the weld is sound: 1.0 for a fully radiographed double-butt joint, 0.85 for spot examination, 0.70 for none. It is a tabulated choice, not a dial: if the arithmetic asks for 0.91 you buy 1.0 and pay for the radiography. And the 0.6P in the denominator is a thick-wall correction, which effectively evaluates the stress a little way in from the bore rather than at the mean radius. It is what lets a formula derived for thin shells stay honest up to t=0.5R, equivalently P≤0.385SE. Past that limit the paragraph does not apply and Appendix 1-2 or the Lamé solution takes over.
The number that comes out is the pressure-design thickness and nothing else. Corrosion allowance is added on top, mill under-tolerance on top of that, and then it is rounded up to a plate thickness that is actually rolled. External pressure, wind and seismic, the weight of the contents, nozzle reinforcement and any local loads are separate calculations that can each govern instead. The formula is imperial-native in practice rather than in algebra: every term is dimensionally consistent, so it works unchanged in MPa and millimetres, but the allowable stresses that feed it are published in ksi and the trade thinks in inches.
Worked example 4.9. Given P = 2 MPa, R = 500 mm, S = 120 MPa, E = 0.85; find t (required wall thickness). 2 MPa, R = 500 mm, S = 120 MPa, E = 0.85 → t = 9.921 mm.
Superposition is the quiet workhorse of elastic analysis: because both stresses are linear in load, the axial and bending parts simply add. On one face they reinforce, on the other they cancel. A 100 × 300 mm post with A=0.03 m², I=2.25×10−4 m⁴ and c=0.15 m under 300 kN and 15 kN·m carries P/A=10 MPa and Mc/I=10 MPa, so one face sees 20 MPa and the other sees exactly zero.
Zero is not a coincidence. That load sits precisely on the kern boundary: the eccentricity e=M/P=0.05 m is exactly h/6, the classic middle-third rule. Push the load any further out and the far face goes into tension, which masonry, plain concrete and an unbolted column base cannot supply: the joint opens instead, the contact area shrinks, and the real stresses shoot past what this linear formula predicts. Every retaining wall and spread footing is checked against that same middle-third line, and it is the reason a chimney survives its own weight but not a modest sideways push.
Two things to watch. Enter c or M as negative to look at the relieved face; the relation stays linear either way, so the solver will happily rearrange for any variable. And superposition only holds while the geometry does not change under load. A slender member deflects, the axial force then acts through that deflection and generates extra moment, the P-delta effect, and beyond a slenderness of roughly 40 this formula understates the stress badly. Codes handle it with a moment magnifier for exactly that reason.
Worked example 4.10. Given P = 300 kN, A = 0.03 m², M = 15 kN·m, c = 150 mm, I = 225000000 mm⁴; find σ (combined fibre stress). 300 kN + 15 kN·m on a 100x300 post → 20 MPa.
(Mechanics of Materials-44)σ1=2σx+σy+(2σx−σy)2+τxy2
Where
σ1= Maximum principal stress (kPa)
σx= Normal stress on the x face (kPa)
σy= Normal stress on the y face (kPa)
τxy= Shear stress on the element (kPa)
Figure 4.11: maximum principal stress (mohr's circle).
Rotate a stressed element and the numbers on its faces change. Turn it far enough and the shear on the faces vanishes entirely, leaving pure tension and compression: those are the principal stresses, and σ1 is the larger. Christian Otto Mohr's 1882 circle makes the bookkeeping visual: the centre sits at the average (σx+σy)/2 and the radius is ((σx−σy)/2)2+τxy2, so σ1 is simply centre plus radius. Take σx=80, σy=20, τxy=40 MPa: the centre is 50, the radius is 302+402=50, and σ1=100 MPa with σ2=0.
Look at what just happened. The largest number on the original element was 80 MPa, and the true peak tension is 100 MPa on a plane nobody was looking at. That gap is why brittle materials crack on surprising angles and why a shaft carrying both torque and bending must be checked on the combined state rather than on each load separately. Two invariants let you sanity-check any answer in your head: σ1+σ2 always equals σx+σy, and σ1σ2 always equals σxσy−τxy2. If your two principal stresses fail either test, the arithmetic is wrong.
Two cautions. Sign convention matters more than any other input here: tension positive, compression negative, and a compressive σy entered as a positive number will move the circle's centre and give a confidently wrong σ1. And this is plane stress, so the third principal stress is zero, which means that when σ1 and σ2 are both positive, the genuine maximum shear in the part is not the in-plane radius at all but σ1/2, on a plane tilted out of the sheet. Ductile-failure theories look at all three.
Worked example 4.11. Given σx = 80 MPa, σy = 20 MPa, τxy = 40 MPa; find σ1 (maximum principal stress). 80/20/40 MPa element → sigma_1 = 100 MPa.
(Mechanics of Materials-45)σ2=2σx+σy−(2σx−σy)2+τxy2
Where
σ2= Minimum principal stress (kPa)
σx= Normal stress on the x face (kPa)
σy= Normal stress on the y face (kPa)
τxy= Shear stress on the element (kPa)
Figure 4.12: minimum principal stress (mohr's circle).
The minor principal stress is the other end of the same diameter: centre minus radius. For σx=100, σy=40, τxy=40 MPa the centre is 70 and the radius 50, so σ1=120 and σ2=20 MPa. Verify with the product invariant: 120×20=2400, and σxσy−τxy2=4000−1600=2400. The two principal planes are always exactly 90° apart, which is the one geometric fact about Mohr's circle worth memorising.
σ2 is the stress people neglect and then regret. In a pressure vessel it is the longitudinal stress, half the hoop; in a rolling contact it is a large compression that makes the shear beneath the surface, not at it, the place fatigue cracks start. And when σ2 goes negative while σ1 stays positive, the circle straddles the origin and the element is in the state closest to pure shear: the worst case for a ductile material, because the maximum shear is then (σ1−σ2)/2, larger than either principal stress on its own.
The classic mistake is treating σ2 as unimportant because it is smaller. For cast iron, concrete and other brittle materials the governing check is σ1 against tensile strength, but for steel every yield criterion in use, Tresca and von Mises alike, is built from the difference between principal stresses, so σ2 is half the answer. A biaxial tension state with σ1=σ2 has zero in-plane shear and will not yield at all under Tresca, which is why a spherical pressure vessel is the most efficient shape there is.
Worked example 4.12. Given σx = 100 MPa, σy = 40 MPa, τxy = 40 MPa; find σ2 (minimum principal stress). 100/40/40 MPa element → sigma_2 = 20 MPa.
(Mechanics of Materials-46)τmax=(2σx−σy)2+τxy2
Where
τmax= Maximum in-plane shear stress (kPa)
σx= Normal stress on the x face (kPa)
σy= Normal stress on the y face (kPa)
τxy= Applied shear stress on the element (kPa)
Figure 4.13: maximum in-plane shear stress.
This is the radius of Mohr's circle, and it has two equally useful readings: the largest shear stress on any plane through the element, and half the difference of the principal stresses. For σx=100, σy=40, τxy=40 MPa the radius is 302+402=50 MPa, and independently (120−20)/2=50 MPa. Those two routes agreeing is the fastest check there is on a plane-stress calculation.
The planes carrying τmax sit at 45° to the principal planes, and that number shows up everywhere in a failure surface. Pull a mild steel bar to failure and it necks with a cone-and-cup fracture at roughly 45°, because ductile metals fail on shear. Compress a concrete cylinder and it shears on a diagonal. Twist a piece of chalk and it breaks on a 45° helix, following the principal tension instead, because chalk is brittle. Which family a material belongs to decides whether τmax or σ1 is the number that ends its life.
The trap is the phrase in-plane. In plane stress the out-of-plane principal stress is zero, so if σ1 and σ2 have the same sign, the true absolute maximum shear in the material is max(∣σ1∣,∣σ2∣)/2 on a plane tilted out of the sheet, which can exceed the in-plane radius. Tresca's criterion works on that absolute value. Ignoring it makes a biaxial tension state look far safer than it is, and it is the single most common error in a first pass at a yield check.
Worked example 4.13. Given σx = 100 MPa, σy = 40 MPa, τxy = 40 MPa; find τmax (maximum in-plane shear stress). 100/40/40 MPa element → tau_max = 50 MPa.
(Mechanics of Materials-47)σv=σx2−σxσy+σy2+3τxy2
Where
σv= Von Mises equivalent stress (kPa)
σx= Normal stress on the x face (kPa)
σy= Normal stress on the y face (kPa)
τxy= Shear stress on the same faces (kPa)
A yield strength is a single number measured in a tensile test, where one stress acts and the other two are zero. Real components are nowhere near that simple: a shaft has bending and torsion at once, a pressure vessel bore has hoop tension and radial compression, a bracket has axial load and shear on the same face. Von Mises answers the obvious question: what single tensile stress would be equally damaging? For plane stress, σv=σx2−σxσy+σy2+3τxy2, and you compare that directly with the yield strength.
Take σx=150, σy=50, τxy=60 MPa. Inside the root: 22500−7500+2500+10800=28300, so σv=168.2 MPa. Cross-check it through the principal stresses, which are 178.1 and 21.9 MPa: σ12−σ1σ2+σ22=32200−3900=28300, the same number, as it must be. The criterion cannot depend on which axes you happened to draw.
The pure-shear case is the one worth memorising. With σx=σy=0, σv=3τ, so yielding in shear begins at τ=σY/3≈0.577σY. That 0.577 is where the shear yield strengths in design tables come from. Tresca, the rival criterion, predicts 0.5 instead and is the more conservative of the two; test data for ductile metals sits closer to von Mises. Two limits ship with the answer. This is the plane stress form, with σz taken as zero: right for a thin plate or a free surface, wrong for a closed vessel wall carrying axial stress as well, where the third principal has to be carried through. And it is a criterion for ductile metals: cast iron, concrete, ceramics and composites fail on entirely different rules, and applying von Mises to them will not warn you that it is meaningless.
Worked example 4.14. Given σx = 150 MPa, σy = 50 MPa, τxy = 60 MPa; find σv (von mises equivalent stress). 150/50/60 MPa → sigma_v = 168.23 MPa (checked via principals).
Nominal stress is an average, and material at a notch root does not experience averages. Kt is the multiplier between the two, read off a Peterson chart for the geometry at hand. The canonical case is Kirsch's 1898 elasticity solution for a small circular hole in a wide plate under uniaxial tension, which gives Kt=3.00 exactly: a 15 ksi nominal becomes 45 ksi at the two points on the hole's equator, and it does not matter whether the hole is 1 mm or 100 mm across.
That size independence is the counter-intuitive part, and it is only true for a hole in a plate large enough to be effectively infinite. What actually controls Kt is the ratio of the feature's radius to the surrounding dimensions, so a sharp fillet is far worse than a generous one: opening a shoulder radius from r/d=0.05 to 0.2 can drop Kt from about 2.5 to about 1.5, a 40% cut in peak stress for a change a machinist barely notices. It costs nothing and it is the highest-value edit available on most drawings.
The trap is applying Kt where it does not belong. Under a static load on a ductile metal, the notch root simply yields, redistributes and shrugs, which is why a bolt hole in a steel plate is checked on net-section rupture, not on a factor of 3. Concentration matters for brittle materials, for fatigue, and for anything cold. In fatigue the effective factor is Kf, usually less than Kt because of a notch-sensitivity effect, and the de Havilland Comet crashes of 1954 are the reason anyone learned to care: cracks grew from cutouts whose corners concentrated the fuselage hoop stress far above nominal, cycle after pressurisation cycle.
Worked example 4.15. Given Kt = 2.5, σnom = 80 MPa; find σmax (peak local stress). K_t = 2.5 on 80 MPa nominal → 200 MPa.
Module 4 practice
49.Slenderness: A fabricated column section is measured off the shop drawing: area 2000 mm², least area moment of inertia 450000 mm⁴. Calculate the least radius of gyration of the section.
50.Slenderness: A column stands 3 m between braces, fixed at the base and free at the top, so K = 2. Its section has a least radius of gyration of 40 mm. Determine the slenderness ratio of the member.
51.Euler buckling: A 3 m column in aluminium, E = 70 GPa is pinned at both ends, giving K = 1. The least area moment of inertia of its section is 20 × 10⁶ mm⁴, and the member is slender enough for Euler's theory to govern. Calculate the critical buckling load.
52.Euler buckling: A 5 m column in structural steel, E = 200 GPa, pinned at both ends (K = 1), must reach 1200 kN before Euler buckling takes it. Determine the least area moment of inertia the section must provide.
53.Hoop stress: A thin-walled air receiver of 800 mm internal diameter has a wall 5 mm thick and runs at 1.5 MPa gauge. Calculate the hoop stress in the wall.
54.Hoop stress: A cylindrical vessel of 1000 mm internal diameter must hold 2.5 MPa gauge. The plate's allowable stress is 125 MPa. Determine the minimum wall thickness the hoop stress permits.
55.The vessel, two ways: A cylindrical process vessel of 1200 mm internal diameter has a 6 mm wall and operates at 15 bar gauge. Calculate the hoop and longitudinal stresses in the shell.
56.The vessel, two ways: A pressure-test report lists the axial stress in a thin-walled cylinder as 40 MPa, with no external load applied. Determine the hoop stress in the same shell.
57.The spherical head: A spherical gas storage vessel has an internal radius of 1000 mm and a wall 8 mm thick. It holds gas at 2.4 MPa gauge. Calculate the membrane stress in the wall.
58.The spherical head: A spherical storage vessel of 1125 mm internal radius must hold 2.4 MPa gauge. The plate's allowable stress is 150 MPa. Determine the minimum wall thickness the membrane stress permits.
59.When the wall is thick: A pressurised cylinder has an internal diameter of 200 mm and a wall 25 mm thick. The design office uses the usual rule: thin-wall theory is valid while the wall is thinner than one twentieth of the diameter. Determine whether the thin-wall hoop formula may be used on this cylinder.
60.When the wall is thick: A thick-walled steel pressure tube, inside radius 25 mm and outside radius 75 mm, carries oil at 120 MPa gauge. The outside surface is unloaded. Calculate the hoop stress at the bore.
61.Thickness by the code: A cylindrical pressure vessel shell has an inside radius of 960 mm and a design pressure of 1 MPa. The code's stress table allows the plate S = 138 MPa at the design temperature, and the long seams are not radiographed at all, so the joint efficiency is E = 0.7. Determine the minimum shell thickness the code requires for pressure.
62.Thickness by the code: An existing cylindrical shell has an inside radius of 930 mm and a measured wall of 12.5 mm. The code allows its plate S = 150 MPa, and the long seams are fully radiographed, so the joint efficiency is E = 1. Determine the maximum design pressure the code permits for this shell.
63.Combined stresses: A 100 × 600 mm rectangular steel post carries a compressive load of 300 kN together with a bending moment of 90 kN·m about its strong axis. Its area is 60000 mm², its moment of inertia 1800000000 mm⁴, and the neutral axis stands 300 mm from either face. Count compression as positive. Calculate the stress on the face where the two effects add.
64.Combined stresses: A 200 × 300 mm rectangular steel post carries a compressive load of 600 kN together with a bending moment of 45 kN·m about its strong axis. Its area is 60000 mm², its moment of inertia 450000000 mm⁴, and the neutral axis stands 150 mm from either face. Count compression as positive. Calculate the stress on the face where the bending relieves the compression.
65.Principal stresses: A plane-stress element is cut from a loaded bracket. On its x face the normal stress is 100 MPa, on its y face 40 MPa, and the shear stress on the element is 40 MPa. Tension is positive. Determine the maximum principal stress at the point.
66.Principal stresses: A plane-stress element is cut from a loaded bracket. On its x face the normal stress is 100 MPa, on its y face 40 MPa, and the shear stress on the element is 40 MPa. Tension is positive. Determine the minimum principal stress at the point.
67.Will it yield?: A plane-stress element on the wall of a welded tank sees a normal stress of 50 MPa on its x face and -30 MPa on its y face, with no shear stress on those faces. Tension is positive. Calculate the von Mises equivalent stress at the point.
68.Will it yield?: A point on the surface of a drive shaft carries a bending stress of 60 MPa along the shaft and a torsional shear stress of 60 MPa. There is no normal stress around the circumference. Calculate the von Mises equivalent stress at the point.
69.Stress raisers: A steel tension strap carries a nominal stress of 45 MPa on its net section. A transverse hole through the strap gives a stress concentration factor of Kt = 3. Calculate the peak stress at the notch root.
70.Stress raisers: Photoelastic measurement on a notched test coupon reads a peak stress of 135 MPa at the notch root, while the nominal stress on the net section is 45 MPa. Determine the stress concentration factor of the notch.
71.The Vessel Audit: Annual inspection, and this is the last tank on the list. A thin-walled cylindrical air receiver of 1000 mm internal diameter carries a 8 mm wall and is stamped for 1.6 MPa gauge. The shell plate yields at 300 MPa, and the site's code requires a factor of safety of at least 2 against yield. No calculator today — work each line, and every answer feeds the next. Determine whether this vessel may be certified for another year of service.
72.The Vessel Audit: Bonus mark, same shift. The plant wants a 1000 mm bore vessel re-rated to 3 MPa gauge. Its plate yields at 250 MPa, the code minimum factor of safety is 2.5, and the shell it already has is 12 mm thick. Determine whether the existing shell is thick enough for the re-rate.
Module 5
Bolts, Welds and the Shop Floor
The thread that holds · Torque and preload · The preloaded joint · Three ways a joint fails · The screw jack · The weld throat · Sizing the weld · Heat input · Speeds and feeds · Metal off the bar · The Fabrication Order
Cut a thread on a bolt and you remove metal, so the bolt is weaker than its nominal diameter suggests. But it is not as weak as the ROOT diameter suggests either, and the number that sits between the two is what every fastener strength figure in the world is quoted against.
Why not simply use the root area? Because the thread is a helix, not a series of grooves. The material at the crests is not merely along for the ride: some of it is engaged with the nut and carries load into the shank. Testing thousands of fasteners established that the effective diameter for tension sits close to the mean of the pitch and minor diameters, and the standards were written around that construction. For ISO metric threads it reduces to At=4π(d−0.9382p)2; for Unified inch threads the same construction with a slightly different root truncation gives the coefficient 0.9743.
Those two coefficients are why the thread form is an input on this page instead of a hidden constant. Applying the metric 0.9382 to a 1/2-13 UNC bolt gives 0.1424 in² against the published 0.1419 in²: small enough to pass unnoticed and wrong on purpose. Note also that an inch thread's PITCH is the reciprocal of its threads per inch: a 1/2-13 has a pitch of 1/13 = 0.0769 in, and entering the 13 itself produces nonsense that the domain guard will catch but the arithmetic will not explain.
The size of the reduction is worth internalising. For an M12 the stress area is 84.3 mm² against 113.1 mm² for a plain circle on 12 mm: twenty-five per cent less. Size a bolt on its nominal diameter and it is over-rated by roughly that margin. Once you have the right area, everything else about bolt strength is one multiplication away: proof load is proof stress times this area, and the grade markings stamped on a head (8.8, 10.9, Grade 5, Grade 8) are shorthand for that stress.
Two cases where this area is the wrong one. A bolt loaded in SHEAR across an unthreaded shank uses the full shank area, which is why structural bolts are specified with the threads excluded from the shear plane where possible: the same bolt is meaningfully stronger that way. And a bolt sheared across its threads uses the root area instead, smaller than this. There is also a limit this page cannot see: a bolt is only as strong as the threads holding it, and if the tapped hole is in aluminium or the engagement is short, the threads strip long before the bolt breaks. The usual rule of thumb is an engagement length of at least one diameter in steel and closer to two in aluminium, which is where helical thread inserts earn their place.
Worked example 5.1. Given d = 12 mm, p = 1.75 mm, kt = 0.9382; find At (tensile stress area). M12 × 1.75 → 84.27 mm², the published 84.3.
A bolt is not a hook, it is a clamp: tightening stretches the shank into a very stiff spring whose tension squeezes the joint together, and that preload is what actually carries the load and stops the joint from working loose. The nut factor K rolls thread friction, under-head friction and thread lead into one empirical number: about 0.20 for plain steel as-received, 0.15 lubricated, 0.10 or lower with anti-seize or wax. An M12 bolt tightened to 72 N·m with K = 0.20 gets F = 72 ÷ (0.20 × 0.012) = 30 000 N of preload. In field units, 75 ft·lbf on a 1/2-inch bolt at K = 0.20 gives 900 in·lbf ÷ (0.2 × 0.5) = 9000 lbf.
Here is the sobering part: only about 10 to 15% of the torque you apply ends up as bolt stretch. The rest is spent overcoming friction under the nut face and in the threads, which is why K is not a constant of nature: it drifts with plating, lubricant, surface finish, reuse and even how fast you pull the wrench. A torque wrench delivers preload accurate to roughly ±25% at best, and anti-seize on a spec written for dry threads can overload a bolt to failure. When it truly matters, control the stretch instead: turn-of-nut, load-indicating washers, ultrasonic bolt-length measurement, or hydraulic tensioners on flange bolting.
Worked example 5.2. Given K = 0.20, D = 12 mm, F = 30 kN; find T (tightening torque). M12 at K = 0.20 for 30 kN preload → 72 N·m.
Figure 5.3: joint stiffness ratio of a bolted joint.
This is the single most misunderstood relation in mechanical design, and understanding it changes how a bolted joint is drawn.
Tighten a bolt and two things happen at once: the bolt STRETCHES and the clamped members COMPRESS. They are two springs sharing a load, and they are not in series: they are in parallel, acting against each other. Now apply an external tensile load trying to pull the joint apart. The joint stretches a little; the bolt, already stretched, stretches slightly more; and the members, already squashed, un-squash by the same small amount. The extra force in the bolt is that small deflection times the bolt's stiffness. The relief in the members is the same deflection times theirs. The load divides in proportion to stiffness, and the bolt's share is C=kb/(kb+km).
For a steel bolt through steel plates, C typically lands between 0.1 and 0.3. The bolt sees only ten to thirty per cent of the external load. The other seventy to ninety per cent merely reduces the compression already in the members. A properly preloaded bolt in a stiff joint barely notices the working load it is holding, its tension moves a few per cent while the joint stays closed, and that is not an accident of the design, it is the point of preloading.
The consequence for fatigue is decisive. A bolt in a cycling joint sees an alternating stress proportional to C, so a joint with C = 0.2 gives the bolt a fifth of the stress amplitude that the same load would apply to an unpreloaded bolt. Analysing a bolt as though it carried the whole external load is not being conservative; it is using the wrong model, and it leads people to fit a bigger bolt when what the joint actually needed was more preload or a stiffer stack. It is also why bolts in cycling joints fail from LOOSENING far more often than from being undersized: lose the preload and the joint separates, C stops applying, and the bolt suddenly takes everything.
Gaskets invert all of this. A soft gasket in the stack is a soft member spring, k_m collapses, C climbs toward 1, and the bolt takes nearly the whole external load on every cycle. That is why serious pressure joints confine the gasket in a groove with metal-to-metal contact outside it, so the members stay stiff and the gasket only seals. The stiffness of the members themselves is the harder number to compute, because the compression under the bolt head spreads out into the plate rather than staying in a neat cylinder; the standard treatment models it as a hollow cone or frustum of about thirty degrees half-angle around the hole. NASA Reference Publication 1228, the Fastener Design Manual, works that geometry through in full and is freely available.
Worked example 5.3. Given kb = 600 MN/m, km = 2400 MN/m; find C (joint stiffness ratio). 600 MN/m bolt in 2400 MN/m members → C = 0.20.
5.4 External Load That Separates a Preloaded Joint
Figure 5.4: external load that separates a preloaded joint.
Every advantage of a preloaded joint depends on one condition: the members must stay in compression. Separation is the load at which that condition fails, and it is a cliff rather than a slope.
The arithmetic is short. An external load P relieves the members by (1−C)P. The members started with the preload Fi of compression in them. They run out when (1−C)P=Fi, which gives P0=Fi/(1−C). Below that load the joint behaves as the stiffness-ratio page describes, and the bolt's tension creeps up by only CP. At and above it, the members have nothing left to give and the bolt takes EVERY additional newton on its own.
That transition is why the calculation matters more than its simplicity suggests. Consider a joint with C = 0.2 and a 25 kN preload: it separates at 31.25 kN. At a 30 kN working load the bolt tension is 25 + 0.2(30) = 31 kN, barely above preload. At 40 kN, a third more load, the bolt is at 40 kN, up thirty per cent. The bolt's stress curve has a knee in it at P₀, and a joint cycling through that knee fatigues at a rate the closed-joint calculation gives no hint of. Fretting starts, the faces work against each other, and preload is lost, which lowers P₀ further. It is a one-way process.
Design the working load well below P₀. A factor of about 1.5 on separation is a common target, more where the load is uncertain, where the joint has to seal, or where opening it even briefly would be unacceptable. Then check the preload from the other side: the bolt has to survive Fi+CP without yielding, so preload plus the bolt's share of the external load, divided by the thread stress area, must stay under the proof strength. A widely used target for a reusable joint is seventy-five per cent of proof load, which leaves room in both directions at once.
Finally, the preload you calculate is not the preload the joint keeps. Embedment, the surface asperities flattening under the clamp force, costs real clamp force in the first hours and can be several per cent on a rough or multi-interface stack. Gasket creep, thermal cycling with dissimilar materials, and paint or plating under the joint faces all take more. This is why critical joints get re-torqued after a heat cycle, and why torque, with its notoriously scattered nut factor, is the least accurate of the preload methods: bolt elongation, turn-of-nut and ultrasonic measurement all beat it, and NASA RP-1228 tabulates the scatter honestly.
Worked example 5.4. Given Fi = 25 kN, C = 0.25; find P0 (external load at separation). 25 kN preload, C = 0.25 → joint opens at 33.3 kN.
A bolted lap joint has three ways to come apart and most people only check two. The plate can tear across the net section beside the hole, which is a tension problem. The bolt can be cut through, which is a shear problem. And the bolt can crush the side of its own hole: elongating it into a slot until the joint slips, the bolt tilts and everything downstream goes out of alignment. That third one is bearing, and it is the failure mode that quietly ruins a connection without ever breaking anything in half.
The arithmetic is deliberately crude: σb=P/(dt), with d the bolt diameter and t the thickness of the plate being crushed. An M20 bolt carrying 50 kN through a 10 mm plate bears on a projected area of 20×10=200 mm², so σb=50000/2.0×10−4=250 MPa. In inch units a 3/4 in bolt through a 1/2 in plate at 9000 lbf gives 9000/0.375=24000 psi.
Notice what d×t is: a flat rectangle, the shadow the bolt casts on the plate. The bolt does not touch the hole over that rectangle: it touches over a curved arc, and the true contact pressure peaks well above the nominal figure at the crown. Codes handle this not by refining the geometry but by allowing a much higher stress: AISC permits 2.4Fu on the projected area, Eurocode 3 uses k1αbfu. So the number this page returns means nothing on its own. It only means something next to a bearing allowable. Held up against a tensile allowable it will look alarming and be wrong, and held up against nothing it is just a number. In a joint of several plates, run the check on the thinnest one, or on the sum of the thicknesses bearing the same direction.
Worked example 5.5. Given P = 50 kN, d = 20 mm, t = 10 mm; find σb (bearing stress). 50 kN on an M20 bolt through 10 mm plate → 250 MPa.
(Mechanics of Materials-54)TR=2Fdm(πdm−μll+πμdm)
Where
TR= Raising torque (N·m)
F= Axial load (kN)
dm= Mean thread diameter (mm)
l= Lead (mm)
μ= Thread friction coefficient
A power screw is an inclined plane wrapped round a cylinder, and the torque to drive one is the same problem as pushing a block up a ramp against friction: unrolled, the thread is exactly that ramp. A screw jack, a machine vise, a press ram, a lathe cross-slide and a linear actuator are all the same element with different clothes on.
Unroll one turn of the thread and you get a right triangle: base πdm, the mean circumference; height l, the lead, which is the axial travel in one turn. The angle between them is the lead angle, λ=arctan(l/πdm). Push a block up that ramp against a friction coefficient µ and the required tangential force is F(tanλ+μ)/(1−μtanλ); multiply by the radius dm/2 to get torque, and multiply top and bottom by πdm to clear the tangents, and the bracket on this page falls out exactly as written.
Work an example. A 25 mm mean diameter single-start screw with a 5 mm lead, µ = 0.08, raising 10 kN. The numerator is 0.005+π(0.08)(0.025)=0.01128; the denominator is π(0.025)−0.08(0.005)=0.07814; their ratio is 0.1444; and T=(10000×0.025/2)(0.1444)=18.05 N·m. Now notice how little of that work reaches the load. One turn raises 10 kN by 5 mm, 50 J, and takes 2πT=113 J of input. The efficiency is 44 per cent, and the missing 63 J went into rubbing the flank.
That inefficiency is not a defect; on a jack or a vise it is the product. A screw is self-locking when the friction angle exceeds the lead angle, and a self-locking screw can never be more than 50 per cent efficient in the raising direction. You are buying the property that the load stays up when the handle is released, and you pay for it in energy. Where you would rather have the efficiency (a fast actuator, a machine-tool feed) you use a ball screw at 90 per cent and accept that it back-drives, and you fit a brake.
Two things this page deliberately leaves out, both of which matter. It is the SQUARE-thread form: an Acme thread's flank is tilted 14.5° from the radial and an ISO trapezoidal thread's 15°, which raises the normal force and therefore the friction by about 3.5 per cent, and the standard fix is to use µ/cos(α/2) in place of µ. And it is the THREAD torque only: a screw turning against a plain thrust collar adds Fμcdc/2, which on a jack is frequently as large again as the whole figure above, and which a rolling thrust bearing all but eliminates. That bearing is usually the cheapest efficiency available on a screw.
Finally, sizing a screw is not this calculation alone. The load it can raise is also limited by column buckling if it is long and slender in compression, by the bearing pressure on the thread flank, which sets how many turns of nut engagement are needed and how fast it wears, and by the shear area at the thread root. And µ itself is the weakest number in the whole exercise: 0.10 to 0.20 for lubricated steel on steel, 0.06 to 0.10 for steel on bronze, far worse dry or dirty, and different again once the screw has run in. Two significant figures on the torque is optimistic.
Worked example 5.6. Given F = 10 kN, dm = 25 mm, l = 5 mm, μ = 0.08; find TR (raising torque). 10 kN on a 25 mm × 5 mm lead screw, µ = 0.08 → 18.05 N·m.
(Mechanics of Materials-55)TL=2Fdm(πdm+μlπμdm−l)
Where
TL= Lowering torque (N·m)
F= Axial load (kN)
dm= Mean thread diameter (mm)
l= Lead (mm)
μ= Thread friction coefficient
Turn the screw the other way and friction changes sides. Raising, it fights you and adds to the load; lowering, the load is trying to drive the screw and friction is what holds it back. The bracket flips accordingly, (πμdm−l) over (πdm+μl), and the sign of the answer is the whole lesson of the page.
If πμdm>l, the torque comes out positive: you must apply torque to let the load DOWN, and with the handle released nothing moves. The screw is self-locking. If πμdm<l, the torque is negative, which is not an error: it is the amount you must apply AGAINST the direction of lowering just to stop the load running away. The screw back-drives, or overhauls, and anything held up by it needs a brake.
Set the torque to zero and the boundary falls out in one line: μ=l/(πdm), or equivalently μ=tanλ. The friction angle equals the lead angle. That is the self-locking criterion, and it explains a great deal at a glance. A fine single-start thread has a small lead and locks easily. A coarse or multi-start thread has a large lead and does not. A ball screw has almost no friction at all and never locks, which is exactly why it is fast and exactly why it always needs a holding brake. The same criterion is why a fine-pitch bolt resists loosening better than a coarse one, and why a screw jack under a car is safe while a lead screw on a fast actuator is not.
Work the boundary for a 30 mm mean diameter screw with a 5 mm lead: μcrit=0.005/(π×0.03)=0.053. Almost any dry or greased steel pair sits well above that, so the screw locks comfortably: with µ = 0.15 and a 10 kN load, it takes 14.4 N·m to let it down. Change nothing but the lead, to 10 mm double-start, and the critical coefficient doubles to 0.106; the screw still locks at µ = 0.15, but the margin has halved.
Which brings the real warning. DO NOT DESIGN SELF-LOCKING ON A THIN MARGIN. µ is the least reliable figure in the calculation and it moves the wrong way over a machine's life: fresh grease reduces it, a run-in thread reduces it, and VIBRATION reduces it dramatically. The effective coefficient under vibration can approach zero, which is the mechanism by which bolts back off and by which a screw that passed a static bench test walks down under a vibrating load. Where a dropping load would injure someone, fit a positive holding device (a ratchet, a brake, a worm reducer, a mechanical stop) and treat the self-locking as the second line of defence rather than the first. It is also worth remembering that a thrust collar helps here: its friction torque opposes motion in whichever direction the screw turns, so it adds to the holding in the lowering direction just as it subtracts from the efficiency in the raising one.
Worked example 5.7. Given F = 10 kN, dm = 30 mm, l = 5 mm, μ = 0.15; find TL (lowering torque). 10 kN on a 30 mm × 5 mm screw, µ = 0.15 → +14.43 N·m (self-locking).
The cross-section of an equal-leg fillet weld is a right-angled triangle with its two legs lying along the two plates. The throat is the altitude from the right angle at the root to the hypotenuse at the face: the shortest path across the weld, and therefore the plane the weld actually fails on. For a triangle with equal legs of length z, that altitude is z/2=0.7071z. Codes print 0.707, and this page uses the printed figure so that hand arithmetic and the calculator agree to the last digit; the difference is fifteen parts in a hundred thousand and nothing whatever depends on it.
Using the leg where the throat belongs overstates the weld by 41 per cent, because 1/0.707=1.414. It is the most common arithmetic error in weld design, and it is dangerous specifically because both numbers are properties of the same weld and both are called "the weld size" in ordinary speech. The drawing gives you a leg. The calculation wants a throat. Convert once, deliberately, and write down which is which.
Four assumptions sit under the 0.707, and every one of them is routinely forgotten.
The legs are equal. An unequal-leg fillet has a throat that is neither leg times 0.707: it is the altitude of a scalene triangle, and it has to be worked out from the actual legs or measured on a macro-etch. Unequal legs are not rare: they are specified deliberately where one plate is much thicker, and they happen accidentally whenever the gun angle drifts.
The face is flat or slightly convex. A concave fillet has a throat SMALLER than its legs suggest, because the face has been drawn in toward the root. This is the real and common overestimate of capacity, and it is insidious because a concave fillet looks tidier and more professional than a flat one: it is what a welder produces when trying to make a neat weld, particularly in the horizontal position with a fluid puddle. A fillet gauge that measures legs will pass it. A gauge that measures the throat will not. If capacity matters, measure the throat.
There is no penetration credit in this number. Some codes permit a qualified deep-penetration process, submerged arc in particular, to count root penetration as part of the effective throat, which can be a substantial gain. That credit has to be earned through procedure qualification and it belongs to a specific process, current and joint. It is not available by assumption, and it is not in the 0.707.
And the leg on the drawing is a minimum, not a target, but oversizing is not free either. Weld metal grows as the square of the leg, so a fillet welded 25 % oversize costs about 56 % more metal, more arc time, more heat into the plate and more distortion. Meanwhile the arithmetic is bracketed from both ends by code requirements this page will not guess at: a minimum fillet size on thick material, because a small weld on a heavy plate is chilled by the mass around it and cools too fast, keyed to the thicker part joined; and a maximum along the edge of a plate, so the plate edge stays visible and the weld cannot be built out past it. Both are table entries in the governing code.
Worked example 5.8. Given z = 8 mm; find a (effective throat). 8 mm leg → 5.656 mm throat.
Figure 5.9: fillet weld capacity from throat area.
The capacity of a fillet weld is the allowable stress on the weld metal multiplied by the area of throat resisting the load. That is the whole equation, and its simplicity is deceptive, because each of the two terms hides a decision.
Start with the convention it rests on. A fillet weld is checked in shear on its throat regardless of which direction the load pulls. That is a design convention, not a description of the stress field inside a real fillet weld, which is a genuinely messy three-dimensional thing with stress concentrations at the root and the toe. The convention survives because it has been calibrated against a very large number of destructive tests, and because it is conservative for loads transverse to the weld axis: a transversely loaded fillet is measurably stronger than a longitudinally loaded one of the same size, and some codes allow a directional strength increase to recover part of that margin. Take the increase only if your code offers it and you have satisfied its conditions.
This page asks for the throat AREA rather than deriving it from a leg size, deliberately, because the throat is the term that is actually uncertain. Multiply the effective throat by the effective length and enter what you can defend. On a concave fillet that is less than 0.707 times the leg. Overstating the throat overstates the capacity in exact proportion, and no amount of care with the allowable stress compensates for it.
The allowable stress belongs to the weld metal, not to the plate. It is set by the electrode classification and by the code you are working to, it already carries that code's safety factor, and it is a table lookup rather than something to remember. Do not apply a second safety factor on top without knowing exactly what the first one was.
Three things this product does not know about. Effective length is not always the length you measure: codes discount craters, treat welds returned around corners separately, and require a minimum length below which a fillet is not credited at all. Long welds are not fully effective: past a length of roughly a hundred times the leg size, the load does not distribute evenly along the weld, the ends take more than their share, and codes apply a reduction factor. And the base metal has to be checked separately, both at the fusion face and through the plate behind the weld, including block shear and lamellar tearing on through-thickness loading. A weld stronger than the plate it sits on has not made the joint stronger; it has moved the failure.
One design habit worth forming. Throat and length multiply the same way in this equation but they are not interchangeable in practice, because weld metal grows as the square of the leg size while length grows in proportion. Doubling the leg quadruples the metal, the arc time, the heat and the distortion: for twice the capacity. Doubling the length doubles the capacity for double the metal. If the joint has room, take the length.
Worked example 5.9. Given τ = 130 MPa, At = 1500 mm²; find F (weld capacity (load)). 1500 mm² throat at 130 MPa → 195 kN.
Figure 5.10: fillet weld size for a load per unit length.
This is the same relation as the throat-stress page with the length divided out of both sides, and that small algebraic move is why weld design is actually done in this form.
Once the load is expressed PER UNIT LENGTH of weld, the length disappears from the sizing calculation entirely. That is why weld capacity tables are published as force per millimetre or per inch of weld per unit of leg size, and why a fabricator can read a required leg straight off a chart. It also makes the linearity obvious: a 6 mm fillet carries exactly twice what a 3 mm one does on the same electrode, because the throat is proportional to the leg.
Getting the load per unit length right is the part that takes thought, and it is where the real errors live. A weld carrying pure direct shear is straightforward: the total load over the total effective length. A WELD GROUP carrying a moment is not. The load on each element of the group grows with its distance from the group's centroid, exactly as a bolt group does, so the governing point is the far corner and not the average. Size the weld for that corner. Where a group carries both a direct load and a torsional one, combine the two components as VECTORS at the critical point; adding their magnitudes is wrong, sometimes badly so, because the two are rarely aligned.
"Effective" length is a term of art. Codes discount the ends of a weld, because the stress does not develop instantly at a start or a stop and craters at the ends are a common defect. Welds returned around a corner, end returns, are credited differently again, and an intermittent weld is measured in its actual deposited segments rather than over the run they are spread across. When a code and a calculation disagree about a weld's length, the code is describing what the weld can be relied on to do rather than what geometry says it is.
Two habits worth carrying out of this page. First, size for the corner and not for the average; the difference on an eccentrically loaded bracket is easily a factor of two. Second, when a weld comes out too small to be practical, below the code minimum for the plate thickness, do not simply write the minimum and move on without checking the base metal, because a minimum-size weld on heavy plate means the plate, not the weld, is deciding what this joint can carry.
Worked example 5.10. Given f = 300 N/mm, τa = 100 MPa; find w (required fillet leg size). 300 N/mm at 100 MPa allowable → 4.24 mm leg.
Figure 5.11: shear stress on a fillet weld throat.
Everything about fillet weld design turns on one number, and it deserves to be derived rather than memorised.
Look at a fillet weld end-on. Its cross-section is very nearly a right-angled triangle with the two perpendicular sides, the LEGS, lying along the two plates being joined. For the standard equal-leg fillet both legs are the size w that appears on the drawing and on the welding gauge. The weld cannot fail along a leg, because a leg is a fusion face rather than a section through metal. It fails across the THROAT: the shortest path from the root of the joint to the face of the weld, which is the altitude of that triangle from the right angle to the hypotenuse. For an isosceles right triangle that altitude is w/2=0.7071w, and 0.707 is simply 1/2 rounded.
The classic error is to compute on the leg. It over-states the weld's capacity by 2, which is forty-one per cent, and it is easy to make because the leg is the number on the drawing while the throat is not. Two limits on the 0.707: it holds only for an EQUAL-LEG fillet, and an unequal-leg weld needs its own throat measured on its own geometry; and it is the nominal throat, ignoring root penetration beyond the theoretical root, which codes permit you to count only when the process has been qualified for it.
The other convention that surprises people is that a fillet weld is checked in SHEAR on the throat regardless of which way the load pulls. A transverse fillet is genuinely stronger than a longitudinal one (perhaps thirty per cent, since the throat plane sees a different combination of normal and shear stress) but design practice treats them alike and takes the conservative shear case for both. It is a simplification that has stood up well and it removes a whole class of ambiguity from weld drawings.
The allowable belongs to the weld metal, not to the plate. It comes from the electrode classification, and the AWS structural relationship is public and widely printed: allowable shear on the throat is 0.30 times the electrode's nominal tensile strength, so a 70 ksi electrode gives 21 ksi and an E48 wire about 190 MPa on the equivalent basis. Check the base metal separately: a weld stronger than the plate it sits on does not make the joint stronger, it just moves the failure into the plate.
Two practical limits sit outside the arithmetic. Codes set a MINIMUM fillet size tied to the thickness of the thicker part joined, because a small weld on a heavy plate is quenched by the surrounding metal, cools too fast, and cracks. They also set a MAXIMUM along a plate edge, usually the thickness less about 1.6 mm, so the edge is not melted away. Between those, prefer length to size: a fillet twice as big takes roughly four times the passes and the deposited metal, while twice the length costs twice.
Worked example 5.11. Given F = 50 kN, w = 6 mm, L = 200 mm; find τ (shear stress on the throat). 50 kN on a 6 mm × 200 mm fillet → 58.9 MPa on the throat.
H= Heat input (arc energy per unit length) (kJ/mm)
V= Arc voltage (V)
I= Welding current (A)
η= Arc (thermal) efficiency
S= Travel speed (m/min)
Figure 5.12: welding heat input.
Heat input is the energy the arc puts into every unit length of joint. Volts times amperes is the electrical power at the arc; arc efficiency takes off the share that radiates away, blows off as spatter or warms the torch; and dividing by travel speed spreads what is left over the length welded. Written in the units a shop actually uses it comes out as H=60VIη/(1000S) with S in millimetres per minute, but the 60 and the 1000 are unit conversions and nothing else. Strip them away and the relation is simply power in, divided by how fast the arc walks.
The single most important thing to understand about this number is that it does not, by itself, decide anything. What governs the microstructure of the heat-affected zone is how long the steel spends cooling through the transformation range, the t8/5 time between 800 and 500 °C, and heat input is only one of the terms that sets it. Plate thickness matters as much. Joint geometry matters. Preheat and interpass temperature matter enormously. And whether heat is escaping into two dimensions or three changes the entire form of the relationship. The same 1.5 kJ/mm laid on 6 mm plate and on 40 mm plate gives two welds with nothing metallurgical in common: the thin one cools slowly and the thick one quenches itself. Quote a heat input to a procedure and you have said something useful. Quote it as though it settled the question of whether the weld will crack, and you have said nothing at all.
Which is why codes limit heat input to a range rather than a ceiling. Too little and the joint cools too fast, hardening the heat-affected zone and inviting cold cracking. Too much and the grain in the coarse-grained heat-affected zone grows, toughness falls away, distortion rises, and on quenched-and-tempered steels you begin to undo the heat treatment the plate was bought for. There is a window, and it is narrower on some materials than on others.
Now the unit trap, because it is the reason this page exists in the form it does. A North American procedure sheet says 30 kJ/in. A European one says 1.2 kJ/mm. Those are close to the same weld, and the factor between the two systems is 25.4. Every value from about 0.5 to about 50 looks like a plausible heat input in one system or the other, so there is no sanity check anywhere in the arithmetic that catches the mistake: an answer of 30 kJ/mm looks like a heavy submerged-arc pass rather than what it actually is, a kJ/in figure read in the wrong system. This site types heat input as a real unit with its own picker precisely so the conversion cannot get lost. Enter the number with the unit it was written in and the engine carries the 25.4.
The second trap is closer to home and costs a factor of 60. Travel speed is quoted in millimetres per minute or inches per minute, and a number written down as mm/min and later read as mm/s is out by a factor of sixty in the wrong direction. The picker on this page offers metres per minute and feet per minute, because those are the units the engine has: 300 mm/min is 0.30 m/min, and 12 in/min is 1.0 ft/min. Say the number out loud before you enter it.
Three cautions on the terms themselves. The efficiency η is a process property and a contested one: published values for the same process differ by ten points depending on how the calorimetry was done, with broad ranges around 0.6 for gas tungsten arc, 0.8 for shielded metal arc, 0.85 for gas metal arc, and 0.9 and up for submerged arc, where the flux blanket traps nearly everything. Worse, some codes define heat input with η omitted entirely and call the bare VI/S figure arc energy to keep the two apart. If you are comparing a number against a code limit, find out which of the two the code means. The voltage belongs to the arc, not to the machine's panel meter, and on a long or warm cable the difference is real energy going into the cable rather than the plate. And with a weave, the travel speed that counts is net progress along the joint, not the speed of the hand.
Worked example 5.12. Given V = 28 V, I = 250 A, η = 0.85, S = 0.3048 m/min; find H (heat input (arc energy per unit length)). 28 V, 250 A, η = 0.85 at 304.8 mm/min → 1.171 kJ/mm.
(Mechanics of Materials-61)CE=C+6Mn+5Cr+Mo+V+15Ni+Cu
Where
CE= Carbon equivalent (%)
C= Carbon (%)
Mn= Manganese (%)
Cr= Chromium (%)
Mo= Molybdenum (%)
V= Vanadium (%)
Ni= Nickel (%)
Cu= Copper (%)
Figure 5.13: carbon equivalent (iiw).
Steel hardens when it cools quickly from above its transformation temperature, and how much it hardens depends on what else is dissolved in the iron. Carbon does most of the work, but manganese, chromium, molybdenum, vanadium, nickel and copper all push in the same direction to varying degrees. The carbon equivalent is the arithmetic that converts each of them into the amount of carbon that would have the same effect, so that one number stands in for a whole certificate. The International Institute of Welding's version (carbon, plus manganese over six, plus chromium, molybdenum and vanadium over five, plus nickel and copper over fifteen) is the one most widely tabulated, and the one most codes still key their preheat requirements to.
Enter the elements as they appear on the mill certificate, in weight per cent. Because the expression is linear and homogeneous, the answer lands on the same scale: a CE of 0.47 means 0.47 % carbon equivalent, which is the number a preheat table is keyed to.
It is a screening number, not a verdict, and the distinction is not pedantry. The expression was fitted to predict hardenability in the heat-affected zone of the steels that were structural practice when it was derived: steels with meaningfully more carbon than a modern grade. On today's low-carbon microalloyed plate it overestimates the risk, sometimes badly. The mechanism is visible in the coefficients: manganese counts a sixth, which is a heavy weighting, and modern grades get their strength from manganese and from microalloy additions rather than from carbon. Work an example. A conventional plate at 0.18 % C and 1.40 % Mn comes out at 0.47. A modern grade at 0.08 % C and 1.50 % Mn comes out at 0.387: a real improvement, but nothing like the improvement the halved carbon content actually delivers in the plate's cracking behaviour. In the modern steel the manganese term is larger than the carbon term, which is not a description of what makes that steel crack. This is exactly why Ito and Bessyo published Pcm, and it is why the two parameters can rank the same pair of steels in opposite order.
The preheat comes from a code, not from this page. CE is an input to a table in AWS D1.1, CSA W59, EN 1011-2 or whatever governs your work, and that table also wants the thickness, the restraint and the hydrogen level of the consumable before it will give you a temperature. The table is the authority; this is the number you carry to it. Neither the number nor the table replaces a procedure qualification, which is the only thing that tests your steel, your consumable, your joint and your welder together.
And hydrogen, the other half of cold cracking, appears nowhere in this equation. Hydrogen-assisted cold cracking needs three things simultaneously: a susceptible microstructure, tensile restraint, and diffusible hydrogen. Carbon equivalent speaks to the first. Joint design and fit-up speak to the second. Nothing on this page speaks to the third. Hydrogen comes from moisture and from hydrocarbons: damp flux coating on a rod left out on the bench, a wet or contaminated shielding gas, rust and mill scale, paint, oil, cutting fluid, even the marker used to lay out the joint. Low-hydrogen consumables have to be kept low-hydrogen, which means a sealed tin or a heated rod oven and a rule about how long a rod may sit out. A reader who computes a comfortable CE and stops has addressed one leg of a three-legged stool.
One last practical note: the certificate is for the heat the plate was rolled from, and it reports a ladle analysis. A product analysis taken from the plate itself can differ, and segregation means the composition at mid-thickness is not the composition at the surface, which matters for a full-penetration joint in heavy plate. If the number lands near a threshold in the table, that is not the moment to trust the last decimal place.
Worked example 5.13. Given C = 0.18 %, Mn = 1.40 %, Cr = 0.10 %, Mo = 0.02 %, V = 0.03 %, Ni = 0.15 %, Cu = 0.25 %; find CE (carbon equivalent). 0.18 C, 1.40 Mn plate → CE = 0.47.
This equation is nothing but the circumference of a circle multiplied by how many times it goes round per minute, and it is still the most misapplied relation in the trade. Cutting speed V is how fast the workpiece surface passes the cutting edge. Spindle speed N is how fast the machine turns. They are different quantities in different units, and the only thing joining them is V=πDN.
The classic mistake is reading a catalogue's cutting speed as an rpm. A carbide grade rated at 250 m/min set to 250 rpm on a 50 mm bar is cutting at 39 m/min: about a sixth of what the grade was made for. The symptoms are quiet: a poor finish, a slightly odd chip, and a tool life so long that nobody suspects anything is wrong. The same error on a 500 mm flywheel runs the tool at 393 m/min and destroys it in seconds, which at least announces itself.
Which diameter goes into the equation depends on what is turning. On a lathe it is the diameter of the workpiece at the surface being cut, and that shrinks with every roughing pass, so a constant rpm means a steadily falling cutting speed. This is exactly what a CNC lathe's constant-surface-speed mode exists to correct, and why that mode needs an rpm ceiling: as the tool approaches the centre of a face the equation demands infinite rpm, and the chuck has other ideas. Facing is the honest edge case: the cutting speed genuinely does fall to zero at the centre, which is why the tool rubs rather than cuts as it arrives, and why a facing cut leaves a little pip if the tool is not on centre height.
Milling and drilling invert the roles: the cutter is what turns, so D is the cutter diameter and stays fixed for the whole job. A drill has the same problem as a facing cut in miniature: the cutting speed at the outside corner is the full πDN and at the chisel edge it is zero, which is why the centre of a drill extrudes metal rather than cutting it and why large holes get a pilot.
Notice what the equation does not contain: nothing about the material, the tool, the feed or the coolant. It is pure kinematics, and it tells you nothing whatever about whether the speed you picked is a good one. Everything about that lives in Taylor's equation and in the data your tooling supplier publishes for the material you are actually cutting. On a manual machine the answer then has to be rounded to a gear the headstock actually offers, and the rule is to round down: a little under costs a little productivity, a little over costs tool life at the rate Taylor's exponent dictates.
Worked example 5.14. Given D = 50 mm, N = 800 rpm; find V (cutting speed). 50 mm bar at 800 rpm → 125.7 m/min.
The table feed is the number a milling machine is programmed in, and the chip load is the number the cutter cares about. This equation is the whole of the relationship between them: each tooth takes a bite of fz, there are z of them, and the spindle brings them round N times a minute.
Because the table feed is derived and the chip load is fundamental, raising the spindle speed without raising the feed in proportion is a mistake, and it is the mistake most often made, because rpm feels like the safe thing to increase. Thinning the chip does not make the cut gentler. Below a chip thickness comparable to the edge radius of the tool, the edge stops shearing and starts ploughing: the metal is pushed down and burnished rather than cut, the tool heats, and it wears out by rubbing. Too small a chip load kills more milling cutters than too large a one, and it does so while the cut sounds beautiful.
Count the teeth honestly. z is the number of teeth actually engaged and cutting, which is not always the number on the cutter. A fly cutter has one. A face mill with inserts set at two heights presents half of them at a shallow depth. And on an indexable cutter whose inserts run out relative to one another, the highest tooth takes a chip larger than this equation says while the others take less, which is why runout shortens insert life so disproportionately, and why measuring runout is worth more than most of the other things done to a tired cutter.
Two effects make the real chip thinner than fz, and both mean the feed can be raised rather than that the equation is wrong. Radial chip thinning: when the stepover is less than half the cutter diameter, each tooth enters and leaves at a shallow angle and the maximum chip it takes is smaller than the programmed feed per tooth, roughly by the sine of the engagement angle. This is the arithmetic behind trochoidal and dynamic milling, where a small stepover is fed at what looks like an impossible rate. Axial thinning does the same for a round-insert or ball cutter taking a shallow depth of cut.
Finally, climb or conventional changes what the chip does at each end of its life. In climb milling the tooth enters at full chip thickness and leaves at zero; in conventional milling it enters at zero, which means it rubs before it bites. Climb milling gives better finish and tool life on any machine with the backlash taken out of the feed screw, and was the reason the ball screw arrived.
Worked example 5.15. Given N = 1200 rpm, z = 4 , fz = 0.10 mm; find vf (table feed rate). 1200 rpm × 4 teeth × 0.10 mm/tooth → 480 mm/min.
Speed times feed times depth. Three numbers multiplied together, and the product is the volume of metal leaving the part per minute: the only honest measure of how hard a roughing pass is actually working. It is the number to compare two setups with, because feeds and speeds quoted separately can flatter almost anything.
The three terms are mathematically equal and economically nothing like equal, and that asymmetry is the whole strategy of roughing. Depth of cut is nearly free. Doubling it doubles the metal removed and barely touches tool life, because the extra load spreads along more of the cutting edge rather than concentrating anywhere. Feed is close behind: it costs some tool life and it costs finish, since theoretical roughness rises with the square of the feed. Cutting speed is the expensive one: Taylor's exponent means a 20% increase can halve the tool life, for a 20% gain in rate.
So the order of attack is settled: take the deepest cut the machine, the fixture and the insert's usable cutting edge will stand; then the heaviest feed the chipbreaker and the finish allow; and only then raise the speed. Beginners do it in exactly the reverse order, because speed is the knob that feels like it makes the machine work harder.
What actually limits the depth is rarely arithmetic. Spindle power is the obvious ceiling, and the specific-cutting-energy page turns a removal rate into the kilowatts it demands. But before power, most cuts run into rigidity (the deflection of a slender workpiece, the overhang of a boring bar, the grip of the workholding) and into chatter, which is a stability problem rather than a strength one and can appear at a depth well below anything the power calculation objects to. And a depth of cut deeper than the insert's usable edge length is not a heavy cut; it is a broken insert with the corner buried in the part.
One quiet arithmetic point. On a lathe, the depth of cut is taken off the radius, so it reduces the diameter by twice as much. A 2 mm depth of cut takes a 50 mm bar to 46 mm. Half the diameter mistakes in a first-year shop come from this and the other half come from forgetting it in the other direction.
Worked example 5.16. Given V = 150 m/min, f = 0.25 mm, ap = 2 mm; find Q (material removal rate). 150 m/min × 0.25 mm/rev × 2 mm → 75 cm³/min.
Length divided by how fast the tool advances, and the tool advances by one feed per revolution. That is all this is, and it is the building block of every cycle time estimate, every quotation, and every argument about whether a job should be on this machine or that one.
The important thing about it is what it leaves out. This is cutting time only, and on most real parts it is the smaller half of the cycle. Loading and unloading, indexing the turret, rapid moves between features, gauging, deburring, and the tool change when an insert reaches the end of the life Taylor's equation predicted all sit outside the equation. A quotation built on cutting time alone is short by a factor that grows as the batch shrinks: on a one-off it can be short by five.
Include the approach and overrun in L. The tool has to start clear of the workpiece and finish past it, and on a 30 mm part those few millimetres at each end are a large fraction of the pass. Add the number of passes, too: a 6 mm depth of stock removed 2 mm at a time is three of these, plus a finishing pass, plus the retract and reposition between each.
Where a CNC lathe is running constant surface speed, this equation stops being exact, because the spindle speed changes continuously through a facing or contouring move and so does the feed rate in millimetres per minute. The control integrates it properly; the answer here is an estimate taken at one diameter, and for a facing cut the honest thing is to take the mean diameter rather than either end.
Run backwards, the equation tempts you into a real trap. Given a cycle-time target it will hand back the feed or the rpm that meets it, and both bills come due elsewhere: the feed is what decides the surface finish and what the chipbreaker was designed around, and the rpm is what Taylor's exponent charges against the tool. Buying cycle time with spindle speed is the most expensive way to buy it. Buying it with depth of cut (fewer, heavier passes) is nearly free, and is almost always the answer when a job is running long.
Worked example 5.17. Given L = 250 mm, f = 0.20 mm, N = 600 rpm; find tm (machining time). 250 mm at 0.20 mm/rev and 600 rpm → 2.083 min.
C= Taylor constant (speed for one minute of life) (m/min)
Figure 5.18: taylor tool life equation.
Frederick Taylor spent twenty-six years at Midvale and Bethlehem cutting steel into chips and weighing the results, some four hundred tons of them, and in 1907 he presented what came out of it to the American Society of Mechanical Engineers. Buried in a paper mostly remembered for other reasons is the relation that still carries his name: plot tool life against cutting speed on logarithmic axes and you get a straight line. Written out, that line is VTn=C.
The exponent n is small, and everything interesting follows from how small. Around 0.1 for high-speed steel, 0.2 to 0.25 for carbide, 0.4 to 0.6 for ceramics and cermets, and because life goes as V−1/n, an exponent of 0.2 means life varies as the fifth power of the inverse speed. Raise the speed 20% and life falls to (1/1.2)5=40% of what it was. Raise it 50% and only 13% remains. Nothing else on a setup sheet punishes a small change so hard, which is why the equation is worth learning even if you never fit a constant to it.
A larger n means a flatter line, and a flatter line means the material tolerates speed better. That is the real reason ceramics run fast: not that they survive longer at any given speed, but that pushing them costs proportionally less life. It is also why the progression from carbon steel to high-speed steel to carbide to ceramic over the last century is measured in cutting speed rather than in hours of tool life.
The honesty problem is C, and it is worth being blunt about.C is the cutting speed that gives exactly one minute of tool life, so it is a speed, and its numerical value depends entirely on the units it was measured in. A metric source quoting 350 means 350 m/min; a North American source describing the same tool quotes about 1150, because that is the same speed in surface feet per minute. The two differ by a factor of 3.28 and neither table says which it is. Carrying a C across unit systems is the classic way to get an answer that is wrong by a factor of three and looks entirely plausible. This page types C as a speed precisely so the conversion cannot get lost, but you still have to enter the number in the units the source wrote it in, and no calculator can guess that for you.
C is not a material property either. It absorbs everything the equation leaves out: feed, depth of cut, coolant, tool geometry, the workpiece batch, and, crucially, where you decided to call the tool worn out. Taylor's own criterion was that the tool stopped cutting; modern practice usually calls it a flank wear land of about 0.3 mm, and choosing 0.2 mm instead moves C noticeably. Fit your own from a trial on your own job, write down the units and the wear criterion beside it, and it will beat any published figure. The extended forms of the equation, Taylor's expanded version adds feed and depth as further exponents, exist because C alone is doing too much work.
What the equation is for is the economics. Faster means more parts per hour and more inserts consumed; slower means the reverse. The optimum sits where the marginal cost of tooling plus tool-change downtime equals the marginal value of machine time, and it moves with the price of an insert, the shop rate, and how long a tool change takes. Gilbert's minimum-cost and maximum-production tool lives are both derived straight from this relation, and they give different answers: maximum production always runs faster than minimum cost.
Worked example 5.18. Given V = 100 m/min, T = 60 min, n = 0.20; find C (taylor constant (speed for one minute of life)). 100 m/min for 60 min at n = 0.20 → C = 226.8 m/min.
Module 5 practice
73.The thread that holds: A tie rod on the press frame is closed with an M8 bolt of 1.25 mm pitch. For an ISO metric thread the form coefficient is k_t = 0.9382. Calculate the tensile stress area of the thread.
74.The thread that holds: The fabrication drawing calls up M24 × 3 bolts through the bracket’s slotted holes. For an ISO metric thread the form coefficient is k_t = 0.9382. Calculate the tensile stress area of the thread.
75.Torque and preload: An M12 bolt in a pump flange is to be pulled up to a clamp force of 40 kN. The bolts are plain, as-received, and the assembly procedure gives the nut factor as K = 0.2. Calculate the torque the wrench must be set to.
76.Torque and preload: A joint is instrumented for a calibration trial. An M20 bolt reaches 30 kN of measured clamp force at 150 N·m on the wrench. Determine the nut factor this thread condition is delivering.
77.The preloaded joint: A flanged cover is held down by preloaded bolts. Each bolt's stretch stiffness is 600 MN/m, and the clamped members under its head are stiffer still at 2400 MN/m. In service the cover carries an external tensile load of 80 kN per bolt, and the joint stays closed throughout. Determine the joint stiffness ratio, and then the share of the external load the bolt actually picks up.
78.The preloaded joint: A gasketless cover joint is assembled with 75 kN of preload in each bolt. The joint's stiffness ratio has already been worked out as C = 0.25. Calculate the external load at which the joint separates.
79.Three ways a joint fails: A lap joint is made with a single M24 bolt through a plate 12 mm thick. The joint carries 72 kN, all of it through that one bolt. Calculate the bearing stress between the bolt and the plate.
80.Three ways a joint fails: A flat tie bar 100 mm wide by 10 mm thick is pierced on its centreline by a single 30 mm hole for its connecting bolt. The bar carries 49 kN in tension. Calculate the tensile stress on the net section at the hole.
81.The screw jack: A screw jack has a single-start square thread with a mean diameter of 45 mm and a lead of 8 mm. The thread friction coefficient is 0.15, the collar runs on a thrust bearing whose friction is neglected, and the jack carries 30 kN. Calculate the torque needed to raise the load.
82.The screw jack: A screw jack with a single-start square thread, mean diameter 22 mm and lead 4 mm, is holding 8 kN. The thread friction coefficient is 0.1, and collar friction is neglected. Calculate the torque needed to lower the load.
83.The weld throat: A bracket is attached with an equal-leg fillet weld drawn at a 4 mm leg. The face is flat, and no penetration credit is claimed. Calculate the effective throat of the weld.
84.The weld throat: A bracket is attached with an equal-leg fillet weld drawn at a 12 mm leg. The face is flat, and no penetration credit is claimed. Calculate the effective throat of the weld.
85.Sizing the weld: A continuous fillet weld along a stiffener carries 450 N for every millimetre of its length. The electrode and code allow 100 MPa of shear on the throat, and the shop stocks fillet gauges at 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10 and 12 mm. Determine the fillet leg size that should be called up on the drawing.
86.Sizing the weld: A shear tab is attached with an 8 mm equal-leg fillet, 200 mm of effective length, carrying 200 kN. The allowable shear stress on the throat is 100 MPa. Determine whether the weld is adequate as drawn.
87.Heat input: A SMAW pass is run at 25 arc volts and 200 A, travelling 240 mm/min. The procedure takes the arc efficiency as η = 0.8. Calculate the heat input of the pass.
88.Heat input: A welding procedure fixes the heat input at 1.2 kJ/mm. The GMAW machine is set to 25 arc volts and 240 A, and the arc efficiency is taken as η = 0.9. Determine the travel speed the welder must hold.
89.Speeds and feeds: A 25 mm bar is to be turned. The insert manufacturer's card gives a cutting speed of 100 m/min for this workpiece material. Determine the spindle speed the lathe must be set to.
90.Speeds and feeds: A 50 mm bar is to be turned. The insert manufacturer's card gives a cutting speed of 80 m/min for this workpiece material. Determine the spindle speed the lathe must be set to.
91.Metal off the bar: A roughing pass on a lathe runs at 100 m/min of cutting speed, feeding 0.2 mm per revolution, taking 2.5 mm of depth. Calculate the rate at which metal is leaving the part.
92.Metal off the bar: A single turning pass runs 200 mm of travel, including approach and overrun, at 0.25 mm per revolution and 400 rpm. Calculate the time the tool spends in the cut.
93.The Fabrication Order: The order on the bench: one lifting bracket, print to torque wrench, and the shop is closed to calculators. The bracket carries 60 kN through a continuous fillet weld 250 mm long. The electrode and code allow 80 MPa of shear on the throat, and the gauge rack holds 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10 and 12 mm. Take √2 as 1.4 today. Work each line — every answer feeds the next. Determine the fillet leg size to call up on the print, one line at a time.
94.The Fabrication Order: Same bracket, still no calculator. The fillet is run at 25 arc volts and 200 A, travelling 240 mm/min, with the procedure's arc efficiency at η = 0.8. Then the 16 mm bolt holes are drilled at a cutting speed of 20 m/min — use the wall chart's rule, N = 320·V/d, which is 1000/π rounded for mental work. Finally the M16 bolts are pulled to 50 kN of clamp force with a nut factor of K = 0.2. Three lines, one bracket. Determine the heat input, the drill speed and the wrench setting, one line at a time.
Module 6
Materials, Fatigue, Fracture
Hardness and grain · True stress · The Goodman line · Counting the cycles · The crack that grows · Plastic capacity · Factored loads · The Design Review
(Mechanics of Materials-67)HV=d22Fsin(136∘/2)=d21.8544F
Where
HV= Vickers hardness (MPa)
F= Applied load (N)
d= Mean indent diagonal (mm)
Figure 6.1: vickers hardness.
Robert Smith and George Sandland, working at Vickers Ltd, presented the test in 1922 to the Institution of Mechanical Engineers. The indenter is a square-based diamond pyramid whose opposite faces meet at 136°. Press it into the surface under a known load, remove it, and measure the two diagonals of the square mark left behind. Hardness is the load divided by the SLOPING SURFACE AREA of the impression.
The 1.8544 is exact geometry, not a fudge factor. For a pyramid of that included angle, the slant area expressed in terms of the diagonal d works out to d²/(2 sin 68°). Dividing load by that area gives HV = 2F sin(68°)/d² = 1.8543677 F/d². Note it is the sloping area and not the projected area. Vickers and Brinell both use surface area; Knoop and instrumented indentation use the projected area. That is why the scales do not agree even in principle, and why converting between them needs a table rather than a formula.
The great virtue of the pyramid is self-similarity. Impressions made at different loads are geometrically identical, only scaled, so the hardness number is independent of the load: one continuous scale from soft lead to hardened tool steel to ceramics. Brinell cannot claim that, because a ball indenter's impression changes shape with depth, which is why a Brinell result must always carry its ball diameter and load as a ratio. Rockwell cannot claim it either, since it measures depth on an arbitrary scale.
The 136° angle was not arbitrary. It was chosen so that the Vickers number would agree closely with the Brinell number over the range where Brinell is valid, because a Brinell ball's ideal impression subtends about that angle at the recommended 0.375 ratio of impression diameter to ball diameter. The scales were deliberately built to overlap, which is a piece of thoughtful metrology worth knowing about.
Hardness is conventionally quoted in kgf/mm², which genuinely IS a pressure: 1 kgf/mm² = 9.80665 MPa exactly. This site has no kgf/mm² entry in its unit picker, so the pages carry hardness in MPa and print the bare HV number alongside: divide the megapascal figure by 9.80665 to get the number a tester displays. Loads are named the same way: HV30 means a 30 kgf load, which is 294.2 N.
Three practical rules govern whether a reading means anything. Measure both diagonals and average them; a difference of more than about 5 % between them means the surface was not perpendicular to the indenter, and the result is invalid. Keep the specimen at least 1.5 diagonals thick, or the anvil underneath is part of what you measured. And space indents at least two and a half diagonals apart, because the metal around an indent is work-hardened and a neighbouring indent lands in disturbed material. Below about 1 kgf the hardness number starts to climb as the load falls (the indentation size effect, attributed to geometrically necessary dislocations) which is why a microhardness result must always be reported with its load.
Now the question this site will not answer. Everybody who finds this page wants σ_UTS ≈ 3.3 × HV, and it is not here and never will be. That relation is not physics; it is a regression, fitted separately for carbon steel, austenitic stainless, aluminium alloys, brass and cast iron, and giving a different coefficient for each. It fails outright on work-hardened, case-hardened, textured or anisotropic material, where the indenter samples a skin, roughly d/7 deep, that is nothing like the bulk. ASTM E140 and ASTM A370 publish the conversion tables and restrict them, on their own front pages, to the materials they were measured on. Reproducing a regression here would let a reader compute a tensile strength for an alloy nobody ever measured, and print it with a confident number of decimal places. Use the table for your material, or pull a tensile bar.
What hardness IS excellent for is comparison and mapping. A traverse of small indents across a case-hardened section gives the case depth. A traverse across a weld gives the hardness peak in the heat-affected zone, which is the number a welding procedure is qualified against. A traverse against holding time follows a tempering or ageing response cheaply and non-destructively. In every one of those, the hardness number is being used as an index of microstructure, which is exactly what it is.
Worked example 6.1. Given F = 30 kgf, d = 0.500 mm; find HV (vickers hardness). HV30 with a 0.500 mm diagonal → 2182 MPa (222.5 HV).
In 1951 E. O. Hall published measurements on mild steel showing that the lower yield point rose in proportion to the inverse square root of the ferrite grain size. Two years later N. J. Petch, working on cleavage fracture, found the same functional form. The relation has carried both names ever since, and it is the reason grain refinement occupies a special place in metallurgy: it is the only strengthening mechanism that raises strength and toughness at the same time. Solid solution, precipitation and cold work all buy strength by paying in ductility. Refining the grain buys both.
The mechanism is a traffic jam. Plastic flow is dislocations moving on slip planes, and a grain boundary is a discontinuity in crystal orientation that the slip plane cannot cross. Dislocations generated inside a grain glide until they reach the boundary and stop, piling up behind the leader. The pile-up concentrates stress at its tip (and the more dislocations in it, the greater the concentration) until the stress is enough to activate a source in the next grain over and carry the deformation onward. A large grain holds a long pile-up and concentrates stress efficiently, so it yields easily. A small grain holds a short one, and the applied stress must be higher to do the same job. Working the pile-up geometry through gives the stress concentration as proportional to the square root of the pile-up length, which is the grain diameter, and the −1/2 exponent falls out.
The exponent is a fit, not a theorem, and it inverts. Below roughly 20 nm of grain diameter the relation reverses: finer grains make a weaker metal, not a stronger one. This is the inverse Hall–Petch effect, and it is not a measurement artefact. A grain 10 nm across simply cannot contain a dislocation pile-up: there is not enough room, and the elastic field of one dislocation reaches the boundary on both sides. When the pile-up mechanism has nowhere to operate, deformation transfers to whatever else is available, which in nanocrystalline material is grain-boundary sliding and diffusion along the boundaries. Both get easier as grains get finer, because there is more boundary. The strength therefore peaks somewhere around 10 to 30 nm depending on the metal, and falls on either side. Any calculation this page returns for a grain size in the nanometre range is pointing the wrong way, and the page says so.
Two things about the constants deserve care. σ₀, the friction stress, is the yield strength the metal would have with no boundaries at all: a single crystal's lattice resistance. It is not a property of the element on its own: it carries solid-solution content, temperature and strain rate with it, so a σ₀ fitted at room temperature has no place in a hot-working calculation. k_y, the slope, describes how hard it is to transmit slip across a boundary. It rises with carbon content in steel because interstitial atoms segregate to boundaries and lock the sources there, and it is measurably different depending on whether you defined yielding as the upper yield point, the lower yield point or the 0.2 % proof stress. A k_y is only usable against the same definition it was measured with.
Two unit traps, both of which produce plausible answers. Grain size wants micrometres, and entering millimetres puts the strengthening term off by a factor of √1000 ≈ 31.6. And k_y is quoted variously in MPa·m^(1/2), MPa·mm^(1/2) and MPa·µm^(1/2): again a factor of √1000 between each step. This site types k_y with the fracture toughness unit type, which will look strange on this page. The reason is dimensional and nothing else: k_y has units of Pa·√m, a stress intensity factor has units of Pa·√m, and MPa·√m converts to ksi·√in by identical arithmetic in both cases. The picker's label is wrong; the units are right. A Hall–Petch slope and a fracture toughness are unrelated quantities that happen to share a dimension, and that is the whole of the connection.
In practice the relation is what the entire discipline of thermomechanical controlled processing exists to exploit. Controlled rolling of microalloyed steel (niobium, titanium and vanadium in tenths of a percent) works by using carbonitride particles to pin austenite grain boundaries during hot rolling, so the austenite stays fine, recrystallises repeatedly, and transforms to a ferrite grain of a few micrometres instead of tens. That is where modern pipeline steel gets both its strength and its low-temperature toughness, and the arithmetic on this page is the reason it was worth the trouble.
Worked example 6.2. Given σ0 = 70 MPa, ky = 0.74 MPa·√m, d = 10 μm; find σy (yield strength). Mild steel, 10 µm grain → 304 MPa yield.
(Mechanics of Materials-69)σt=σe(1+e),εt=ln(1+e)
Where
σe= Engineering stress (MPa)
e= Engineering strain (%)
σt= True stress (MPa)
Figure 6.3: true stress from engineering stress.
A tensile machine knows two things: the load in the grips and the extension of the gauge length. It knows the cross-section of the bar you told it about before the test, and it has no way of learning that the bar has got thinner since. So it divides load by the ORIGINAL area and calls the result stress, and divides extension by the ORIGINAL length and calls the result strain. Those are engineering values, and the curve drawn from them is a fiction useful for comparing materials and useless for describing what the metal is doing.
True stress divides the load by the area the bar actually has at that instant. Since plastic flow conserves volume, A₀L₀ = AL, so A = A₀/(1 + e) and σ_t = σ_e(1 + e). True strain is defined as the integral of dL/L rather than the ratio ΔL/L₀, which gives ε_t = ln(1 + e). Both conversions rest on constant volume, so they are meaningless below yield: elastic deformation changes volume, and the elastic part of the curve should not be converted at all.
Two properties make true strain worth the trouble. It is additive: strain the bar 10 % and then 10 % again, and the true strains add to give exactly the true strain of the combined operation, while the engineering strains do not. And it is symmetric in tension and compression: squeezing a specimen to half its height is a true strain of −0.693, and stretching it to double is +0.693, whereas the engineering values are −0.5 and +1.0. Any calculation that combines deformation steps (a rolling schedule, a multi-pass draw) has to be in true strain or the arithmetic simply does not work.
The most useful thing this conversion explains is why the engineering curve turns over at the ultimate tensile strength while nothing about the metal softens. The true curve rises monotonically all the way to fracture. The engineering curve peaks and falls because the load is being divided by an area that no longer exists, and past maximum load the section is shrinking faster than the metal is hardening. The UTS is therefore not a strength in any material sense; it is the coordinate of a geometric instability. That is Considère's criterion restated, and it is why the UTS moves if you change the specimen shape while the true flow curve does not.
The conversion has a hard limit and it is the neck. Both formulas assume the deformation is UNIFORM along the gauge length, and the instant a neck forms that stops being true: the neck is straining rapidly while the rest of the bar has stopped. Past maximum load the true stress has to be computed from the measured minimum diameter of the neck itself, and even then it needs the Bridgman correction, because the neck's geometry sets up a triaxial tensile stress state that raises the axial stress above what uniaxial flow would need. Uncorrected post-necking "true stress" values are systematically high, and any flow curve fitted through them is wrong at the end where it matters most.
One practical note. Extension measured at the crossheads includes the compliance of the whole load train (grips, load cell, frame) and at small strains that can be a substantial fraction of what is recorded. Use an extensometer clipped to the gauge length, or a digital image correlation field, if the strain values are going anywhere near a flow-curve fit.
Worked example 6.3. Given σe = 500 MPa, e = 15 %; find σt (true stress). 500 MPa at 15 % engineering strain → 575 MPa true stress.
Fatigue data is nearly always generated under fully reversed loading, where the stress swings symmetrically about zero. Real parts rarely do that (a spring is preloaded, a bolt is tightened, a rotating shaft carries steady bending) and a tensile mean stress is unambiguously harmful. The Goodman line is the correction: plot alternating stress on one axis and mean on the other, draw a straight line from the endurance limit Se to the ultimate strength Su, and anything inside survives. With σa=100 MPa against Se=300 and σm=150 against Su=600, the two fractions are 1/3 and 1/4, summing to 7/12, so n=12/7=1.71.
John Goodman proposed the line in 1899 explicitly as a conservative simplification, not as a physical law. Gerber's parabola of 1874 fits scatter data better and Soderberg's line to yield is stricter still, but Goodman is what design codes and handbooks standardised on, precisely because it errs the safe way. The straight line is also easy to reason about: it says that a mean stress equal to half the ultimate uses up half your fatigue budget, whatever the material.
Two things to get right. Se must be the corrected endurance limit, not the polished-rotating-beam value: surface finish, size, load type, temperature and reliability factors typically knock the textbook 0.5Su down to a third of that, and using the uncorrected figure is the single most dangerous shortcut in fatigue work. And a compressive mean stress does not fit this line at all; it is beneficial, which is the whole point of shot peening, cold-rolled threads and autofrettaged gun barrels. The Goodman check is also purely a fatigue check: you still have to confirm the peak σm+σa stays below yield.
Worked example 6.4. Given σa = 100 MPa, Se = 300 MPa, σm = 150 MPa, Su = 600 MPa; find n (factor of safety against fatigue). 100/300 + 150/600 → n = 12/7 = 1.7143.
Plot alternating stress against life on log-log paper and the high-cycle part of an S-N curve is a straight line. Basquin noticed that in 1910 and wrote it as σa=σf′(2Nf)b, where 2Nf counts reversals rather than cycles and b is a small negative number, typically −0.05 to −0.12 for metals. With σf′=1000 MPa and b=−0.1, a life of 500,000 cycles (a million reversals) gives σa=1000×10−0.6=251 MPa.
The exponent is where the intuition lives, and it is brutal. At b=−0.1, dropping the stress by a factor of two multiplies life by 210=1024. Run the same numbers the other way and a 10% stress overrun costs you about 63% of the life. This is why fatigue predictions are quoted in orders of magnitude rather than percentages, and why a load spectrum measured slightly wrong produces an answer that is not slightly wrong.
The limit to remember is the far right of the curve. Ask this formula for the stress at 109 cycles and it will answer, but for steels and titanium the real curve flattens onto an endurance limit somewhere near 106–107 cycles, below which the part effectively lives forever, so the extrapolation is optimistic in a way the algebra cannot see. Aluminium and copper alloys have no such plateau and keep sloping down, which is why aircraft structures get finite-life inspection intervals rather than infinite-life ratings. Note also that 2Nf is reversals: entering cycles where the formula wants reversals is a factor-of-two error, small on the stress axis and a factor of two on the life axis.
Worked example 6.5. Given σf′ = 1000 MPa, Nf = 500000 , b = -0.1; find σa (alternating stress amplitude). 1000 MPa coefficient, b = -0.1, 5e5 cycles → 251.19 MPa.
Real service loads are not one amplitude, they are a histogram. Miner's rule, proposed by Arvid Palmgren for ball bearings in 1924 and generalised by Milton Miner at Douglas Aircraft in 1945, is the simplest possible bookkeeping: each block of n cycles at a given stress consumes the fraction n/N of the life that stress alone would allow, and failure is predicted when the fractions sum to 1. Three blocks (10,000 of 100,000, then 20,000 of 200,000, then 50,000 of 1,000,000) give 0.10+0.10+0.05=0.25, so a quarter of the life is gone and the same duty cycle can be repeated three more times.
What the rule ignores is sequence, and that is not a small omission. A few large cycles applied first leave compressive residual stress at the notch root that retards the small cycles that follow, so high-then-low ordering commonly gives D well above 1 at failure, while low-then-high gives D well below. Test scatter routinely spans 0.3 to 3.0. Welded-steel design codes handle this by simply mandating D≤1 with the conservatism buried in the S-N curves; aerospace practice often designs to D≤0.3 or lower and inspects anyway.
The most consequential trap is what you leave out. Cycles below the endurance limit contribute nothing under a strict reading of the rule, and if you truncate a load history there you can discard most of the damage in a spectrum where those small cycles are the vast majority: real service data shows they do accumulate damage once larger cycles have started a crack. Modern practice extends the S-N line past the knee with a shallower slope rather than cutting it off. And the cycles must be counted properly out of a variable history, which means rainflow counting, not simply counting peaks.
Worked example 6.6. Given n1 = 10000 , N1 = 100000 , n2 = 20000 , N2 = 200000 , n3 = 50000 , N3 = 1000000 ; find D (accumulated damage fraction). 0.10 + 0.10 + 0.05 → D = 0.25.
a= Crack length a (half length if centre crack) (mm)
Figure 6.7: stress intensity factor.
Before 1920 the strength of a part was its stress against its strength, and that was the whole story. It failed to explain why glass breaks at a thousandth of the strength its atomic bonds promise, why the Liberty ships split in half in cold harbours, and why the Comet airliners came apart at the corners of their windows. The answer in every case was a crack, and the equation that describes what a crack does is K=Yσπa.
The remarkable thing George Irwin showed in 1957 is that the entire elastic stress field around a crack tip has the same shape in every cracked body. Approach the tip and the stress rises as 1/r: towards infinity, which is why a sharp crack has no stress concentration factor in the ordinary sense. Only the magnitude of that field changes from one situation to another, and one number captures it. That number is K. Two entirely different components with the same K have identical conditions at the crack tip, which is why a small laboratory specimen can certify a large structure at all.
Its units are the strangest on this site: MPa·m, a stress times the square root of a length. It is not a stress and not an energy; it is the coefficient of the singularity, and there is no everyday quantity to compare it with. Get used to the numbers instead. A structural steel runs 50 to 200 MPa·m, an aluminium alloy 20 to 45, a titanium alloy 40 to 100, a hardened tool steel perhaps 20, and a ceramic 1 to 5. Ordinary window glass is under 1.
The geometry factor Y is where all the difficulty lives. It is exactly 1 for one case only: a through-thickness crack in the middle of an infinite plate under uniform remote tension. Every real component departs from that, and Y is how the departure is accounted for. A single edge crack in a wide plate gives 1.12: the 12% is the free surface allowing the crack faces to open more. An embedded circular flaw gives 2/π=0.637. A semicircular surface flaw gives about 0.73 at its deepest point. As a crack grows across a finite plate, Y climbs steeply and runs to infinity as the remaining ligament vanishes. Handbook compendia (Tada, Paris and Irwin; Rooke and Cartwright; the annexes of BS 7910 and API 579) collect perhaps a hundred standard configurations, and a real weld toe, nozzle corner or fillet root often matches none of them well enough to be worth arguing about. Getting Y from a finite-element model is ordinary practice, not a luxury, and a fracture assessment whose Y is a guess is a fracture assessment whose answer is a guess.
Half or whole: the arithmetic mistake everyone makes once. For a CENTRE crack, a is the HALF length: the crack measures 2a across the plate and a runs from the centre to one tip. For an EDGE crack, a is the WHOLE depth from the surface. Feed the full length of a centre crack in as a and K comes out 2 too large, 41% high, and the assessment is needlessly conservative. Make the error the other way, halving an edge crack, and K is 29% low, which is unsafe. Every page in this set says which a it wants, and it is worth reading the label every time.
Now the hard truth about toughness.KIC is quoted in tables as though it were a property like density, and it is not. It falls with section thickness, steeply, until full plane-strain constraint is reached and only then goes flat: the same alloy in thin sheet can carry two or three times the plane-strain number. It falls through the ductile-to-brittle transition as temperature drops, and for a ferritic steel that fall can be a factor of five over forty degrees, which is precisely what happened to the Liberty ships in the North Atlantic. It falls with loading rate. And it falls with time in service, through neutron irradiation in reactor vessels, temper embrittlement in alloy steels held hot, and hydrogen from cathodic protection or from sour service. A handbook plane-strain value is conservative for a thin warm section and can be dangerously optimistic for one that is colder, faster loaded, or older than the specimen ever was.
And toughness enters the answer squared. Rearranged for crack size, ac=(KIC/Yσ)2/π. Every uncertainty in toughness is doubled in the crack you would tolerate. This is why the conversion factor between ksi·in and MPa·m deserves its four figures: 1.0988434, not 1.1: nine percent on K is nineteen percent on ac, and North American aerospace and pressure-vessel work moves between the two systems constantly.
Finally, know where linear elastic fracture mechanics stops. It assumes the plastic zone at the tip is small compared with the crack, the ligament and the thickness. When it is not (a tough steel at room temperature, a thin section, a high applied stress) the elastic solution is not describing the tip at all, and the honest tools are the J-integral or crack-tip opening displacement, which is what the failure-assessment diagrams in BS 7910 and API 579 are built on. A critical crack size that comes out larger than the wall thickness is the calculation telling you politely that the part will leak or yield before it fractures, and that is usually good news.
Worked example 6.7. Given Y = 1.00, σ = 100 MPa, a = 5 mm; find K (stress intensity factor). 100 MPa on a 5 mm half-crack, Y = 1 → K = 12.53 MPa·√m.
C= Paris coefficient C (m/cycle, ΔK in MPa·√m) ((m/cycle)/(MPa·√m)^m)
ΔK= Stress intensity range (MPa·√m)
m= Paris exponent m
Figure 6.8: paris law crack growth rate.
Until the early 1960s a fatigue crack was the end of a component's life. Paul Paris's contribution, published with Fazil Erdogan in 1963 in the Journal of Basic Engineering, was to show that a crack's growth per cycle is a simple power function of the stress intensity range, and therefore that a cracked part's remaining life is calculable. The paper was rejected by three journals first. It launched damage-tolerant design, which is why a cracked aircraft structure today is inspected and flown rather than scrapped.
The insight is that if K governs everything at a crack tip, then the RANGE of K over a load cycle should govern how far the crack advances in that cycle. Plot log(da/dN) against logΔK for almost any metal and the middle of the data is a straight line. The slope is m and the intercept is C.
The exponent is the part to feel. For steels and aluminium alloys m is between 2 and 4, usually near 3; some high-strength alloys and titaniums reach 6. At m=3, doubling the stress intensity range multiplies the growth rate by eight. Nothing else available to a designer has that leverage, which is why halving a stress range is worth more than any material substitution, and why the fatigue fixes that work are the ones that reduce load range or remove stress concentration, not the ones that specify a stronger alloy. Fatigue crack growth rates in steels are remarkably insensitive to strength grade; a mild steel and a quenched-and-tempered one grow cracks at nearly the same rate under the same ΔK.
Region II only, and this matters in both directions. The real curve has three parts. Region I is the threshold: below ΔKth (typically 2 to 8 MPa·m in steels, and lower at high R ratio) the curve turns down almost vertically and cracks effectively do not grow. Region II is the straight line Paris described. Region III is the acceleration as Kmax approaches KIC, where the curve turns up and runs to fracture. Extrapolating the straight line DOWN into Region I predicts creeping growth where there is none: wasteful, but safe. Extrapolating it UP into Region III predicts a crack still on the line when it is accelerating away from it, so the predicted life is longer than the real one. That error is in the unsafe direction, and it is how a remaining-life estimate comes out optimistic. Check ΔK at both ends of your integration before believing the answer.
C is unit-bound, and this is the shard's worst trap. The Taylor constant in machining has the same problem; this one is worse, because the exponent sits inside the conversion. C has whatever units make da/dN come out right for the units ΔK was measured in, so it is not a quantity any calculator can convert on its own. This site fixes one convention and states it on every page that uses it: C is in metres per cycle, with ΔK in MPa·m. A source quoting inches per cycle against ksi·in needs converting first: multiply by 0.0254 to change inches to metres, and divide by 1.0988434m to change ksi·in to MPa·m. Get m wrong in that conversion and the result is off by orders of magnitude while looking entirely reasonable. A C taken from a table without checking the table's convention is the most common way to get a crack growth prediction wrong by a factor of a thousand.
And C and m are a matched PAIR. They are the intercept and slope of one fitted line, and they trade off against each other in the fit. Taking m from one source and C from another produces a line that passes through neither data set. Record them together, with the R ratio, the environment, the temperature and the ΔK range they were fitted over.
Two refinements worth knowing exist. Mean stress matters: at higher R=Kmin/Kmax the crack faces stay open longer and growth is faster, which Walker's and Forman's modifications handle, and interestingly they mostly adjust C and leave m nearly alone. And under variable amplitude, a single overload leaves a large plastic zone whose contraction puts compressive residual stress at the tip, retarding growth for thousands of subsequent cycles. A cycle-by-cycle sum that ignores retardation is conservative; one that ignores the underloads which cancel it may not be.
One last practical use, running the equation backwards. In many aluminium alloys each cycle leaves one striation on the fracture surface, and the striation spacing IS da/dN. Measure it under an electron microscope, solve for ΔK, and a failure investigation has recovered the load history from the broken part itself. Steels often show no clear striations, and a spacing below about 0.3 nm, one lattice spacing, cannot be a per-cycle advance at all.
Worked example 6.8. Given C = 6.9e-12, ΔK = 20 MPa·√m, m = 3; find dNda (crack growth per cycle). C = 6.9e-12, m = 3, ΔK = 20 MPa·√m → 0.0552 µm per cycle.
Elastic section modulus assumes stress varies linearly across the depth, so only the extreme fibre reaches yield while everything inside is loafing. Push further and the yielded zone spreads inward until the whole section is at fy, compression above the equal-area axis and tension below. The plastic modulus is the first moment of those two half-areas about that axis: Z=2×(bh/2)×(h/4)=bh2/4. A 50 × 150 mm rectangle gives Z=281,250 mm³ against an elastic S=bh2/6=187,500 mm³.
Their ratio, 1.5, is the shape factor, and it is the reserve strength hiding in every rectangle past first yield. It depends only on the shape: 1.5 for a solid rectangle, about 1.7 for a solid round bar, about 1.12 to 1.18 for a rolled wide-flange section, and roughly 1.27 for a round tube. The I-shape scores lowest precisely because it is already efficient: its material is mostly at the extreme fibre, so there is little understressed core left to recruit.
Two things to keep straight. The plastic axis is the equal-area axis, which coincides with the centroid only when the section is symmetric about the bending axis; for a tee or a channel the two are different lines, and using the elastic centroid gives the wrong Z. And the reserve is only available to a compact section that can actually reach the fully plastic state without buckling locally or rolling over sideways first. A slender web will fold at a stress well below fy, and then neither Z nor S tells you anything useful.
Worked example 6.9. Given b = 50 mm, h = 150 mm; find Z (plastic section modulus). 50x150 rectangle → Z = 281 250 mm³ (1.5 x elastic S).
Once every fibre is at yield, the section is carrying all it can in bending and the moment stops rising: that plateau is Mp=Zfy. A section with Z=1.5×106 mm³ in 350 MPa steel reaches Mp=525 kN·m. In LRFD steel design this is the nominal flexural strength Mn of a compact, adequately braced beam, and the design strength is ϕMn with ϕ=0.90, so 472 kN·m goes up against the factored demand.
What makes plastic design more than an accounting change is what happens next in a statically indeterminate structure. The fully yielded section becomes a plastic hinge: it holds Mp while it rotates, shedding further load to the rest of the frame. A fixed-ended beam that reaches Mp at its supports does not fail, it redistributes and keeps going until enough hinges form to make a mechanism, which for that beam takes three, and delivers a collapse load well above the load that first yielded it. That reserve is real, it was demonstrated by John Baker's team at Cambridge in the 1930s and 40s, and it is why plastic design produces lighter frames than elastic design of the same members.
The conditions attached are strict, and they are all about being able to get there. The section must be compact, so its flange and web slenderness stay below code limits and no local buckling intervenes. The compression flange must be braced closely enough to prevent lateral-torsional buckling. The steel must have the ductility to sustain the rotation, which rules out high-strength low-ductility grades and cold-formed sections. And Mp says nothing about serviceability: a beam sized on plastic capacity may still deflect far more than anyone will accept.
Worked example 6.10. Given Z = 1500000 mm³, fy = 350 MPa; find Mp (plastic moment capacity). Z = 1.5e6 mm³ at 350 MPa → M_p = 525 kN·m.
Limit-states design does not apply one blanket safety factor. It scales each load by a factor reflecting how well that load is known, and 1.2D+1.6L is the workhorse combination in ASCE 7 and its cousins worldwide. Dead load gets 1.2 because you can weigh the structure; live load gets 1.6 because you cannot predict what people will put on a floor. 50 kN of dead load with 30 kN of live gives 60+48=108 kN of required strength, an overall factor of 1.35 on the 80 kN service load.
That overall factor is not a constant, and this is the insight worth taking away. Change the mix to 70 kN dead and 10 kN live and the same combination gives 100 kN, a factor of 1.25. A live-dominated case, 10 dead and 70 live, gives 124 kN and a factor of 1.55. A dead-heavy structure (a concrete parking deck, a green roof) is inherently more predictable and the code rewards it with less margin. Allowable stress design, which simply added service loads and divided the material strength by a single factor, could not make that distinction, and it is the main reason limit-states design produces more consistent reliability across building types.
The trap is treating this one line as the check. It is one of a set: ASCE 7 gives seven basic combinations, and depending on the structure the governing case may be 1.4D alone, or a combination including snow, wind or earthquake, or 0.9D+1.0W, which uses reduced dead load precisely because self-weight helps resist uplift and overturning. That last one is the reason a light roof structure has to be checked twice, and forgetting it is how buildings lose roofs in windstorms. Named factors also drift between code editions and jurisdictions, so read the adopted edition rather than trusting a remembered number.
Worked example 6.11. Given D = 50 kN, L = 30 kN; find U (factored (ultimate) load). 50 kN dead + 30 kN live → 108 kN factored.
Figure 6.12: elastic modulus from compressive strength.
Every concrete code carries some version of this: an estimate of stiffness from compressive strength, with a square root in it. It is genuinely useful, because compressive strength is the one property that always gets measured and elastic modulus is one that usually does not, and a designer needs a modulus for every deflection calculation, every camber, every dynamic analysis and every seismic model.
The square root is the physically interesting part. Stiffness rises much more slowly than strength. Increase the compressive strength by a quarter and the modulus rises by only about twelve percent, because a square root halves any proportional change. This has a direct consequence for design: specifying a higher strength class is a poor and expensive way to buy stiffness. Deflection is governed by EI, and section depth enters I as a cube, so fifteen percent more depth beats a whole strength class, every time, and costs less. Anyone who has tried to solve a deflection problem by upgrading the concrete has discovered this the slow way.
Now the honesty, and it is the reason k is an input on this site rather than a constant. These are regression lines through somebody's test population. ACI drew one, CSA drew another, Eurocode drew a third, and they used different populations, different specimen conditions and different definitions of what Ec even means: a secant modulus taken to some fraction of the peak stress, and the fraction is not the same everywhere. The coefficients are not interchangeable. Using a coefficient from one code inside another code's framework of load factors, resistance factors and deflection limits is not conservative in either direction; it is simply outside both calibrations, and nothing in the arithmetic will tell you. Some codes also carry a density term for lightweight concrete, or a modification factor, or an alternative expression for high-strength mixes, and if yours does, a plain square root is not the equation you want at all.
And the coefficient is unit-bound, which is the trap that catches people who move between markets. In Ec=kfc′, k carries the dimensions of a square root of pressure, so its numerical value depends entirely on the unit the strength was written in. The same ACI relation appears as roughly 4700 in megapascals and roughly 57 000 in psi. Those are one line, not two. The conversion is a factor of about 12.04, the square root of the number of psi in a megapascal, and a coefficient carried across without it is wrong by that factor while printing a perfectly plausible-looking modulus. This site evaluates the root with the strength in megapascals and asks for k in its MPa form, and says so on the page every single time, because a silent convention here is worth an order of magnitude.
The scatter is the real story, though. Concrete's modulus is dominated by its aggregate, which occupies most of the volume and is far stiffer than the paste. Two mixes of identical compressive strength made with a hard trap rock and a soft limestone genuinely differ in stiffness by tens of percent, and no function of fc′ can see that: the strength was set by the paste and the interfacial zone, and the stiffness is being set by the rock. Every code that publishes one of these correlations says in its commentary that the band around it is wide.
So the practical rule is this. For ordinary design, use your code's coefficient inside your code's framework; that is what it was calibrated for and the calibration includes the scatter. But where stiffness genuinely governs (a long-span deflection check, a prestressed member's camber, a vibration-sensitive floor, anything seismic) measure the modulus on the mix you are actually using. It is a real test on a real cylinder and it settles in an afternoon what no correlation can settle at all.
Worked example 6.12. Given fc′ = 30 MPa, k = 4700; find Ec (elastic modulus of concrete). 30 MPa concrete with k = 4700 → E_c = 25.74 GPa.
Module 6 practice
95.Hardness and grain: A metallurgical lab runs a Vickers test on a weld heat-affected zone. The machine applies 50 kgf and the operator measures the two diagonals of the impression, averaging 0.500 mm. Calculate the Vickers hardness of the specimen.
96.Hardness and grain: A mill certificate for a fine-grained pipe body reports a mean linear-intercept grain diameter of 9 µm. For this steel the friction stress σ₀ is 120 MPa and the Hall–Petch slope k_y is 0.6 MPa·√m. Determine the yield strength the grain size predicts.
97.True stress: A tensile specimen is pulled past yield. At one point on the record the machine reports an engineering stress of 450 MPa at an engineering strain of 20 %. Calculate the true stress at that point.
98.True stress: A tensile specimen is pulled past yield. At one point on the record the machine reports an engineering stress of 550 MPa at an engineering strain of 25 %. Calculate the true stress at that point.
99.The Goodman line: In service, a fan-shaft support arm carries a stress that swings between two steady values. The alternating amplitude σ_a is 60 MPa and the mean stress σ_m is 150 MPa. The steel's corrected endurance limit S_e is 240 MPa and its ultimate tensile strength S_u is 600 MPa. Determine the factor of safety against fatigue, then rule on the part.
100.The Goodman line: In service, a press-frame tension link carries a stress that swings between two steady values. The alternating amplitude σ_a is 200 MPa and the mean stress σ_m is 300 MPa. The steel's corrected endurance limit S_e is 400 MPa and its ultimate tensile strength S_u is 1000 MPa. Determine the factor of safety against fatigue, then rule on the part.
101.Counting the cycles: A materials database gives a steel a fatigue strength coefficient σ'_f of 900 MPa and a fatigue strength exponent b of -0.1. A component made from it is required to survive 50 000 cycles. Calculate the alternating stress amplitude the S-N line permits at that life.
102.Counting the cycles: A season of strain-gauge data on a rail wagon bogie frame is rainflow-counted into three load blocks. Block 1: 25 000 cycles applied, against a permitted life of 250 000 cycles. Block 2: 30 000 applied, permitted life 150 000. Block 3: 20 000 applied, permitted life 400 000. Calculate the fatigue damage the season accumulated.
103.The crack that grows: An ultrasonic sweep finds a through CENTRE crack in a wide plate carrying a remote tensile stress of 100 MPa. Its half-length a measures 5 mm, and for this geometry Y is 1.00. Calculate the stress intensity factor at the crack tip.
104.The crack that grows: A ferritic-pearlitic steel has a Paris coefficient C of 5.0e-12 (metres per cycle, with ΔK in MPa·√m) and an exponent m of 3. A crack in a component sees a stress intensity RANGE of 40 MPa·√m every cycle. Calculate how far the crack advances in one cycle.
105.Plastic capacity: A solid rectangular bar 60 mm wide and 300 mm deep is used as a short beam, bent about the axis that keeps the 300 mm dimension vertical. Calculate the plastic section modulus of the section.
106.Plastic capacity: A compact rolled section has a plastic section modulus Z of 1125 × 10³ mm³. The steel's yield strength f_y is 300 MPa. Determine the section's full plastic moment.
107.Factored loads: A rooftop plant support carries 90 kN of dead load — its own weight, the slab and the permanent finishes — and 40 kN of live load from occupancy. Calculate the factored load the strength check must be made against.
108.Factored loads: A mix design specifies a cylinder compressive strength f'_c of 36 MPa. The governing code's coefficient k, in its MPa form, is 4700. Calculate the concrete's elastic modulus, in GPa.
109.The Design Review: Design review, last item on the agenda. A cantilever bracket carries its load at 1.5 m from the face of the column. The service loads are 75 kN dead and 30 kN live. The proposed section has a plastic modulus Z of 600 × 10³ mm³ in 300 MPa steel, and the resistance factor φ is 0.90. Work each line — every answer feeds the next. Determine whether the bracket can be signed off, one line at a time.
110.The Design Review: Part two of the same review: the fatigue file. In service the bracket's critical weld sees an alternating stress σ_a of 60 MPa about a mean σ_m of 150 MPa, against S_e = 240 MPa and S_u = 600 MPa. A year of counted service gives three blocks: 20 000 cycles of a 200 000-cycle life, 15 000 of 100 000, and 30 000 of 600 000. The shop's rule is n ≥ 1.5. Determine whether the fatigue file can be signed off, one line at a time.